Friday 11 December 2020

Biology MCQs for FSc and MDCAT

Biology MCQs for FSc and MDCAT

If you are a student of biology and going to appear in either fsc annual exams or the uhs mdcat then you are on the right page because here we have shared the Biology MCQs for FSc and MDCAT 


1. Water is an excellent solvent for ......... substances.

A) Ionic

B) Polar

C) Non ionic

D) All of these

2. Percentage of water in different organisms is:

A) 55 - 75%

B) 65 - 85 %

C) 69 - 85 %

D) 65 - 89%

3. Heat capacity of water is :

A) 0.1 cal / g

B) 1.0 cal / kg

C) 0.1 K cal / g

D) 1.0 cal / g

4. Animals use ...... to gain cooling effect :

A) Perspiration

B) Evaporation

C) Sweating

D) All

5. In glycosidic linkage,there is a ....... bond between C & O.

A) Single

B) Double

C) Triple

D) Ionic

6. Which of the following has lower molecular weight:


B) Glycogen

C) Waxes

D) Glucose 

7. Which one is an intermediate source of energy for cellular metabolism.

A) Glucose

B) Lactose


D) Lipids

8. Brain cells of human contain ..... water.

A) 75%

B) 80%

C) 85%

D) 89%

9. Water has greater heat capacity because provided heat is mostly used:

A) To increase its temperature

B) To break inter molecular forces

C) To break intra molecular forces

D) Both a & c

10. The heat of vaporization of water is:

A) 574 Kcal/g

B) 576 kJ/kg

C) 576 Kcal/g

D) 574 Kcal/kg

11. It is main source of carbohydrate for animals :

A) Starch

B) Glycogen

C) Cellulose

D) Glucose

12. Which one is false about carbohydrates:

A) Primary products of photosynthesis

B) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones

C) Abundant compounds in livings

D) Highest energy sources

13. Which one is a reducing sugar :

A) Glucose

B) Sucrose

C) Lactose

D) Maltose

14. Tetroses are rare in nature and occur in some :

A) Bacteria

B) Yeast

C) Protists

D) Protozoa

15. Blood contains .... glucose.

A) 0.8%

B) 1.75%

C) 0.25%

D) 0.08%

16. ........ of solar energy is used for synthesis of 10g of glucose.

A) 716.6 cal

B) 717.6 cal

C) 717.7 Kcal

D) none

17. Which one is not a disaccharide:

A) Maltose

B) Fructose

C) Lactose

D) Sucrose

18. The covalent bond present between glucose and fructose is:

A) Glycosidic linkage

B) 1,3 Glycosidic bond

C) 1,2 Glycosidic linkage

D) both a & b

19. Polysaccharides are the polymers of :

A) Monosaccharides

B) Oligosaccharides

C) Disaccharides

D) none

20. Amylose starch is:

A) soluble in hot water

B) soluble in cold water

C) insoluble in hot water

D) both b&c

21. Which is stored in liver and muscles.

A) Starch

B) Cellulose

C) Glucose

D) Glycogen

22. A covalent bond between two monosaccharides is :

A) Peptide bond

B) Glycosidic bond

C) Phosphodiester bond

D) Hydrogen bond

23. It gives no color with iodine :

A) Glucose

B) Starch

C) Glycogen

D) Cellulose

24. Saccharides having three carbon atoms in them are called :

A) Trisaccharide

B) Triglycerides

C) Triacylglycerols

D) Trioses

25. Glucose forms a six carbon ring in solution :

A) Ribopyranose

B) Glucofuranose

C) Ribofuranose

D) Glucopyranose

     ( LIPIDS, PROTEINS and Nucleic Acids)

1. Lipids are a heterogeneous group of compounds related to .........

A) Amino acids

B) Fatty acids

C) Nucleic acids

D) All

2. Lipids are soluble in:

A) Polar solvents

B) Non polar solvents

C) Inorganic solvents

D) both b&c

3. Lipids store double amount of energy as compared to same quantity of carbohydrates due to:

A) High proportion of oxygen

B) Low proportion of C-H bonds

C) High proportion of C-H bonds

D) Both a&c

4. Additional protective layer on the cuticle of epidermis is:

A) Chitin

B) Waxes

C) Cutin

D) Both a&c

5. In esterification, H is removed from ....... and OH is removed from ....... .

A) Fatty acid , glycerol

B) Alcohol , Water

C) Alcohol , Fatty acid

D) Glycerol , Acid

6. Boiling point of Butyric acid is:

A) -2°C

B) -4°C

C) -6°C

D) -8°C

7. Which of the following is unsaturated fatty acid:

A) Acetic acid

B) Butyric acid

C) Palmitic acid

D) Oleic acid

8. The specific gravity of oils and fats is:

A) 0.3

B) 0.6

C) 0.8

D) 0.9

9. Waxes are the mixtures of long chain alkanes and ........ , ....... & ....... 

A) Aldehydes,Ketones,Alcohol

B) Esters,Aldehydes,Ketones

C) Alcohol,Ether,Ketones

D) Esters,Alcohol,Alkanones

10. Phosphatidylcholine is also called:

A) Lectin

B) Ethanolamine

C) Choline

D) Lecithin

11. Proteins form ...... of total dry weight.

A) 40%

B) 50%

C) 60%

D) 70%

12. Which is false about proteins.

A) Abundant organic compounds

B) Polymers of amino acids

C) They have polypeptide chains

D) All proteins are enzymes

13. Most of the proteins are made up of ..... types of amino acids.

A) 20

B) 25

C) 170

D) 10,000

14. In glycine, R is:

A) Hydrogen atom

B) Methyl group

C) Ethyl group

D) Proton

15. In the formation of peptide bond, H is released from ...... and OH is removed from ......

A) Amino acid, Amino group

B) Amine group, Carboxylic group

C) Carboxylic acid, Amino group

D) both a&c

16. How many peptide linkages are present in Haemoglobin molecule:

A) 570

B) 571

C) 573

D) 574

17. Sickle cell haemoglobin is caused by incorrect arrangement of one amino acid in:

A) Alpha chain

B) Beta chain

C) Short chain

D) Both a&c

18. Helical structure of proteins is kept by:

A) Hydrogen bond

B) Ionic bond

C) Peptide linkage

D) Disulphide bridge

19. Head region of phospholipid molecule is:

A) Polar,Hydrophilic

B) Non polar,Hydrophilic

C) Polar,Hydrophobic

D) Non polar,Hydrophobic

20. Haemoglobin exhibits ...... structure.

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) Quaternary 

21. In stable aqueous tertiary structure of proteins, ....... amino acids are present on the surface.

A) Hydrophilic

B) Hydrophobic

C) Stable

D) both a&c

22. Non polar region of phospholipid molecule contains:

A) Phosphoric acid

B) Phosphate group

C) Fatty acids

D) Glycerol

23. Myosin is found in:

A) Bones

B) Muscles

C) Nails

D) Blood

24. Globular proteins are:

A) Non crystalline

B) Soluble in aqueous media

C) Crystalline

D) both b&c

25. DNA is found in:

A) Nucleus

B) Mitochondria

C) Chloroplasts

D) All

26. Nucleic acids are the ploymers of ........

A) Nucleotides

B) Ribonucleotides

C) Deoxyribonucleotides

D) None

27. Identify the pyrimidines.

A) Adenine,Guanine,Cytosine

B) Adenine,Thymine,Uracil

C) Adenine,Guanine

D) Thymine,Uracil,Cytosine

28. Phosphoric acid is attached to ..... position of ribose sugar.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

29. Thymidine is a

A) Nitrogeneous base

B) Deoxyribonucleotide

C) Ribonucleotide

D) Nucleoside

30. Which of is following is a nucleotide:





31. There is a between A & T

A) Phosphodiester bond

B) Double hydrogen bond

C) Triple hydrogen bond

D) Both a&b

32. Which is false about DNA:

A) Polymer of nucleotides

B) Heredity material of cell

C) Helical structure

D) It can undergo transcription

33. Adenine always form bond with:

A) Cytosine

B) Thymine

C) Uracil

D) both b&c

34. Ribosomal RNA forms ....... of total RNA.

A) 70%

B) 80%

C) 90%

D) 20%

35. Most of the cellular secretions are ...... in nature.

A) Glycoproteins

B) Glycolipids

C) Lipo-proteins

D) Nucleo proteins

The Cell

1. Human eye can differentiate between two points. This is called :

A) Magnification

B) Resolution

C) Power 

D) Centrifugation

2. The magnification of a microscope having 20X ocular lens and 50X objective lens is :

A) 50 X

B) 100 X

C) 150 X

D) 200 X

3. All are found in a plant cell except :

A) Vacuole

B) Ribosome

C) Lysosome

D) Golgi Apparatus

4. Percentage of proteins in plasma membrane is :

A) 20 - 40 %

B) 30 - 60 %

C) 50 - 70 %

D) 60 - 80 %

5. All can easily pass through plasma membrane except :

A) Water

B) Glucose

C) Ions

D) Gas molecules

6. Energy for active transport is provided by :


B) Glucose

C) Vitamins

D) Minerals

7. The process in which a cell takes in solid material through cell membrane :

A) Endocytosis

B) Phagocytosis

C) Pinocytosis

D) Exocytosis

8. SER is involved in metabolism of :

A) Glucose

B) Proteins

C) Lipids

D) Saccharides

9. The attachment of smaller and larger subunit of ribosome is controlled by the presence of :

A) Calcium ions

B) Magnesium ions

C) Potassium ions

D) Ferrous ions

10. It is involved in the synthesis of proteins :

A) Ribosome



D) Both a & c

11. Vesicles add into golgi body from :

A) Outer face

B) Concave face

C) Maturing face

D) Inner face

12. It is associated with cell secretions :

A) Ribosome


C) Lysosomes

D) Golgi Apparatus

13. Any foreign material that gains entry into the cell is immediately engulfed by :

A) Golgi Apparatus

B) Cell membrane

C) Lysosomes

D) Vacuole 

14. Lysosome is responsible for :

A) Phagocytosis

B) Autophagy

C) Extracellular digestion

D) All of these

15. Tay-Sach's disease is due to absence of enzymes involved in catabolism of :

A) Lipids

B) Glucose

C) Glycogen

D) Proteins

16. It provides turgor pressure to cell :

A) Cytoplasm

B) Microtubule

C) Centriole

D) Vacuole

17. Microtubules are composed of ...... protein.

A) Actin

B) Myosin

C) Tubulin

D) Troponin

18. Centriole is found in :

A) Animals

B) Plants

C) Fungi

D) All of these

19. It plays an important role in formation of cilia and flagella :

A) Centriole

B) Vacuole

C) Microtubule

D) Both a & c

20. Inner membrane of mitochondria form many infoldings in the inner mitochondrial matrix called :

A) Cisternae

B) Vesicles

C) Cristae

D) Granum

21. Identity cell replicating organelle :

A) Nucleus

B) Chloroplast

C) Mitochondria

D) All of these

22. All metabolic processes take place in ..... of mitochondria.

A) Outer compartment

B) Inner membrane

C) Cristae

D) Matrix

23. Diameter of chloroplasts is :

A) 2 - 3 ųm

B) 2 - 4 ųm

C) 4 - 6 ųm

D) 6 - 8 ųm

24. It covers most of volume of chloroplasts :

A) Granum

B) Thylakoids

C) Intergranum

D) Stroma

25. Circular DNA is found in :

A) Mitochondria

B) Chloroplasts

C) Nucleus

D) Lysosomes 

26. They found in underground parts of plants and store food :

A) Chloroplasts

B) Chromoplasts 

C) Leucoplasts 

D) Cycloplasts

27. A granum is composed of .... thylakoids.

A) 10

B) 20

C) 50 or less

D) 50 or more

28. A group of ribosomes on mRNA is :



C) Polysomes

D) Multisomes

29. Nucleus is visible during :

A) Non dividing stage

B) Mitotic phase

C) Interphase

D) Both a & c

30. Nuclear pores in erythrocytes is :

A) 2 - 3

B) 3 - 4

C) 4 - 5

D) 30,000

31. A darkly stained body within nucleus is :

A) Ribosome


C) Chtomatin

D) Nucleolus 

32. Central area of nucleolus consists of :

A) DNA base units

B) Ribosomal subunits

C) RNA and rDNA

D) Chromosomes

33. Nucleus is often deeply stained with ..... dyes.

A) Acidic

B) Basic

C) Neutral

D) None

34. It is exact replica of chromosomes :

A) Chromatid

B) Centromere

C) Centrosome

D) Secondary constriction

35. Chimpanzee has ..... chromosomes.

A) 32

B) 40

C) 46

D) 48

36. A group of cisternae is called :

A) Golgi Apparatus

B) Golgi complex

C) Lysosomes

D) Both a & b

37. 60 S larger subunit of ribosome combines with 40 S smaller subunit to form ........ particle.

A) 70 S

B) 80 S

C) 90 S

D) 100 S

38. Haem portion of haemoglobin consists of :

A) Magnesium ions

B) Calcium ions

C) Potassium ions

D) Ferrous ions

39. It is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells :

A) Ribosome

B) Cytoplasm


D) All of these

40. A complex of amino acids and saccharides  is :

A) Saccule

B) Pillin

C) Flagellin

D) Murein

Variations and Genetics

1. The position of a gene on chromosomes is :

A) Alleles

B) Locus

C) Karotype

D) Genotype

2. Genotype for round seeded plants is :


B) rr

C) Rr

D) Both A and C

3. It is used to check the genotype of an individual showing dominant phenotype :

A) Test cross

B) Monohybrid test

C) Dihybrid cross

D) Both A and B

4. When a true breeding round seeded plant is crossed with a true breeding wrinkled seeded plant, probability of round seeded plants in F2 generation :

A) 1/4

B) 3/4

C) 1/2

D) 1/3

5. A girl was married to her cousin. Both are heterozygous for blood cancer. The percentage of their affected offspring will be :

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 75%

D) 100%

6. If presence of recessive allele is phenotypically suppressed by dominant allele , the condition will be :

A) Complete Dominance 

B) Codominance

C) Over Dominance

D) Incomplete Dominance

7. More than two alternating forms of a single gene is called :

A) Dominant alleles

B) Recessive alleles

C) Multiple alleles

D) Polygenic alleles

8. A child in hospital has parenthood issue. Blood group of child is "O". Two couples are claiming to be the parents of child. Couple | has blood groups "B" and "A". Couple || has blood groups "O" and "AB".

Child belongs to :

A) Couple |

B) Couple ||

C) Neither couple | nor couple ||

D) Either couple | or couple ||

9. Which one is an example of discontinuous variations ?

A) Intelligence

B) Skin color

C) ABO blood group system

D) Height and weight

10. Gene linkage is a .... relationship between genes.

A) Physical

B) Chemical

C) Biological

D) Mechanical 

11. How many percentage of haemophiliacs suffer from Haemophilia A ?

A) 30%

B) 50%

C) 80%

D) 90%

12. If a haemophiliac male is married to a normal female whose father was haemophiliac. What will the percentage of their affected daughters ?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 100%

13. A colour blind woman is married to a normal man. What will be the ratio of affected offsprings.

A) 0%

B) 100%

C) 75%

D) 50% 

14. Gene for blue opsin is found on :

A) Autosome 7

B) Autosome 9

C) Autosome 11

D) Autosome 19

15. In F2 dihybrids, what will be the probability of plant height and flower color ?

A) 3/16 Dwarf Purple , 1/16 Tall White

B) 9/16 Tall White , 3/16 Dwarf Purple

C) 1/16 Dwarf white , 3/16 Tall white

D) 3/16 Dwarf Purple, 9/16 Tall White


1. Enzymes require ...... for its activity.
A) Cofactor
B) Activator
C) Substrate
D) Aqueous medium
2. Optimum temperature for working of human enzymes is :
A) 36° C
B) 37° C
C) 38° C
C) 39° C
3. The energy lowered by enzymes for a reaction to take place is :
A) Active energy
B) Heat energy
C) Activation energy
D) Kinetic energy
4. Mg 2+ can be used as :
A) Activator
B) Coenzyme
C) Prosthetic group
D) Inhibitor
5. According to Induced Fit Model, when a substrate combines with an enzyme , it induces a change in ..... structure.
A) Enzyme
B) Substrate
C) Cofactor
D) Coenzyme
6. A slight change in pH can cause :
A) Enzyme denaturation
B) Enzyme activation
C) Enzyme retardation
D) Both A and C
7. Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme converts succinic acid into :
A) Fumaric acid
B) Maleic acid
C) Malonic acid
D) Both A and B
8. Some enzymes consist solely of :
A) Amino acids
B) Proteins
C) Lipids
D) Glycoproteins
9. It can be used again and again :
A) Enzyme
B) Cofactor
C) Inhibitor
D) All of these
10. It can form enzyme-inhibitor complex :
A) Competitive inhibitor
B) Non-competitive inhibitor
C) Irreversible inhibitor
D) All of above
11. At low concentration of substrate , rate of reaction is directly proportional to :
A) Substrates available
B) Temperature
C) Enzymes to a certain limit
D) Both A and C
12. Their effect can be neutralized by an increase in concentration of substrates :
A) Reversible inhibitor
B) Irreversible inhibitor
C) Complex inhibitors
D) Destructive inhibitors
13. An activated enzyme consisting of a polypeptide chain and a cofactor is :
A) Apoenzyme
B) ES Complex
C) Holoenzyme
D) Both B and C
14. They are a raw materials for making coenzymes :
A) Vitamins
B) Minerals
C) Enzymes
D) Activators
15. It is a detachable cofactor :
A) Activator
B) Coenzyme
C) Prosthetic group
D) All of these
16. Optimum pH for enzyme enterokinase is :
A) 4.50
B) 5.50
C) 6.80
D) 7.60
17. It can form covalent bond with active site of enzyme :
A) Irreversible inhibitor
B) Reversible inhibitor
C) Prosthetic group
D) Both A and C
18. Enzymes responsible for photosynthesis are found in :
A) Cytoplasm
B) Chloroplast
C) Mitochondria
D) Ribosome
19. It cannot be used as inhibitor :
A) Cyanide
B) Antibodies
C) Anti-metabolites
D) All of these
20. Enzyme combines with a substrate to form :
A) Products
B) Holoenzyme
C) Apoenzyme
D) ES Complex


1.An  antibody is ..... antigen molecules.
A) smaller than
B) larger than
C) equal to
D) slightly equal to
2. Skin and mucous membrane of body offer :
A) Physical barrier
B) Chemical barrier
C) Mechanical barrier
D) All of these
3. A snake bite a person. The person was taken to the hospital. A doctor introduced an injection to the person intravenously. The injection would contain :
A) Antibodies
B) Immunogens
C) Antiserum
D) Antitoxins
4. It causes rejection of foreign tissues :
A) T - cells
B) B - cells
C) Antibodies
D) Immunogens
5. Antigen - Antibody complex is formed during :
A) Auto immune response
B) Cell mediated response
C) Humoral Immune response
D) All of these
6. It is involved in maturation of T-cells.
A) Lymph nodes
B) Bone marrow
C) Tonsils
D) Thymus
7. B-cells are formed by :
A) Thymus gland
B) Bursa of Fabricius
C) Phagocytes
D) Lymphoid bone marrow
8. They produce antibodies in response to antigen :
A) T - cells
B) B - cells
C) B and T lymphocytes
D) Macrophages
9. An antibody molecule has .... polypeptide chains and exhibits ....structure.
A) 3 , secondary
B) 4 , tertiary
C) 3 , tertiary
D) 4 , quaternary 
10. Which portion of antibody molecule determines its attachment with a specific antigen ?
A) Constant portion
B) Variable portion
C) Light chains
D) Heavy chains
11. B - cells recognize antigen and forms :
A) Antibodies
B) Plasma cell
C) Lymphocytes
D) Both A and B
12. Just as the lymph nodes filter lymph, ..... filter blood.
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
13. Vaccine consists of :
A) Antigens
B) Antibodies
C) Antiserum
D) Antivenome
14. Active immunity is ..... while passive immunity is ........
A) Slow and long lived , Fast and short lived
B) Fast and long lived , Slow and short lived
C) Slow and short lived, Fast and long lived
D) Immediate and effective, Slow and long lived
15. Active immunity can be used against :
A) Tetanus
B) Snake bite
C) Mumps
D) Rabies

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