Select Topic:
Amino Acids
MCQ 1: The amino acid that have basic side chain at neutral pH isA. arginine
B. lysine
C. histidine
D. all of above
MCQ 2: Amino acids in which -NH3 is attached to the carbon atom next door to
-COOH group are
A. α amino acids
B. β amino acids
C. γ amino acids
D. none of above
MCQ 3: The ionic state of amino acids depends upon
A. pH of solution
B. pH of solute
C. pH of solvent
D. none of above
MCQ 4: The lifetime of peptide bond in aqueous solution in absence of catalyst ap-
proaches
A. 100 years
B. 500 years
C. 1000 years
D. 1500 years
MCQ 5: The amount of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
A. 50-2000
B. 2000-4000
C. 4000-6000
D. 7000-10,000
MCQ 6: At pH equal to pKa the amino acid solution exists as
A. cationic form
B. anionic form
C. zwitterionic form
D. both A and C
MCQ 7: The formation of dipeptide from two amino acids is accompanied by loss
of
A. amine group
B. carboxyl group
C. sulfur
D. water molecule
MCQ 8: Polar amino acids are usually found
A. on the surface of proteins
B. inside the core of proteins
C. at the sides of proteins
D. can be present anywhere in proteins
MCQ 9: The number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
MCQ 10: The two symbols associated with absolute configuration are
A. R
B. S
C. both A and B
D. L and D
MCQ 11: Amino acids that can be found in proteins are
A. A- amino acids
B. B- amino acids
C. L- amino acids
D. D- amino acids
MCQ 12: The symbol which indicates "Right" and is assigned clockwise in decreas-
ing priority is
A. S
B. R
C. L
D. D
MCQ 13: In hydrolysis of proteins energy is
A. absorbed
B. released
C. remains unchanged
D. none of above
MCQ 14: The D symbol indicates the rotation in
A. anticlockwise rotation
B. clockwise rotation
C. spin up
D. spin down
MCQ 15: Cystine is made up of
A. four molecules of cysteine
B. three molecules of cysteine
C. two molecules of cysteine
D. five molecules of cysteine
MCQ 16: Each amino acid unit in polypeptide chain is called
A. unit
B. residue
C. molecule
D. none of above
MCQ 17: The sulfur atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
A. sulfide group
B. sulfhydryl group
C. sulfite group
D. none of above
MCQ 18: The bond formed between two amino acid molecules is
A. peptide bond
B. sulfur linkage
C. ionic bond
D. coordinate covalent bond
MCQ 19: At pH = 1, the amino acid exists as
A. anion
B. cation
C. zwitterion
D. both A and C
Answers Key:
1. D2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. B
Analytical Methods
MCQ 1: F1 generation representsA. first generation
B. first filial generation
C. first parental generation
D. none of above
MCQ 2: Zygosity can be
A. heterozygous
B. homozygous
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 3: Allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from
generation to generation in absence of other evolutionary influences state the law
A. of evolution
B. of replication
C. of genetic variation
D. Hardy-Weinberg
MCQ 4: If union of gametes to produce next generation is random, then the allele
frequencies between generation are
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. zero
MCQ 5: Gene mapping provides useful information about chance of
A. inheritance of disorders
B. inheritance of genes
C. inheritance of recessive gene
D. inheritance of dominant gene
MCQ 6: The red-green color blindness trait in Western- European males affects
about
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 in 12
C. 3 in 12
D. 4 in 12
MCQ 7: The assumptions underlying Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium are
A. organisms are diploid
B. mating is random
C. population size is infinitely large
D. all of above
MCQ 8: If half the offsprings are recessive, this means that the individual was a
A. homozygous dominant
B. heterozygous dominant
C. homozygous recessive
D. hetereozygous recessive
MCQ 9: The methods used to identify the locus of the gene and distances between
genes are called
A. gene localization
B. gene linkage
C. gene pool
D. gene mapping
MCQ 10: Hardy-Weinberg proportions are
A. p²
B. q²
C. 2pq
D. all of above
MCQ 11: Test cross involves the breeding of a phenotypically dominant individual
with a phenotypically
A. recessive individual
B. dominant individual
C. can be with any individual
D. none of above
MCQ 12: For homozygotes, the expected genotype frequencies are
A. q²
B. p²
C. pq
D. 2pq
MCQ 13: Heterozygous individuals have allele
A. one dominant one recessive
B. both dominant
C. both recessive
D. all of above
MCQ 14: The two basic rules of probability to solve problems in genetics include
A. addition
B. multiplication
C. both A and B
D. division
Answers Key:
1. B2. C
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
Carbohydrates
MCQ 1: Condensation of two monosaccharides yieldsA. disaccharides
B. polysaccharides
C. large amino acid chains
D. large β sheets
MCQ 2: In disaccharides, the two monosaccharides are linked together by
A. ionic bond
B. covalent bond
C. hydrogen bond
D. glycosidic bond
MCQ 3: The hydrolysis of glycoside bond involves
A. breakdown of glycosidic bonds
B. formation of glycosidic bonds
C. formation of hydrogen bond
D. formation of ionic bond
MCQ 4: Non-reducing disaccharides include
A. sucrose
B. trehalose
C. both A and B
D. maltose
MCQ 5: The number of types of disaccharides are
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
MCQ 6: Lactose is an example of
A. polysaccharides
B. monosaccharides
C. oligosaccharides
D. all of above
MCQ 7: On the Haworth, the OH groups that are pointing left on the Fischer be-
comes
A. up
B. down
C. right
D. left
MCQ 8: when glucose molecules are joined by α 1-4 linkage, the type of carbo-
hydrate obtained is
A. lactose
B. starch
C. glycogen
D. none of above
MCQ 9: If OH group is to the left of the last stereocenter carbon then the config-
uration is
A. D
B. L
C. A
D. Y
MCQ 10: The characteristics combined to name monosaccharide carbohydrates in-
clude
A. number of carbon atoms
B. D or L configuration
C. placement of carbonyl group
D. all of above
MCQ 11: The suffix used in carbohydrate naming is
A. number of hydrogen atoms
B. number of carbon atoms
C. number of carbonyl groups
D. D or L configuration
MCQ 12: Another name for table sugar is
A. ribose
B. sucrose
C. pentose
D. glucose
MCQ 13: The analogue of starch is
A. cellulose
B. glycogen
C. sucrose
D. pentose
MCQ 14: Reduction turns monosaccharides in to
A. alcohols
B. polyalcohols
C. esters
D. carboxylic acids
MCQ 15: The sugar that makes up RNA is
A. ribose
B. deoxyribose
C. glucose
D. pentose
MCQ 16: Maltose exists in
A. α configuration
B. β configuration
C. γ configuration
D. all of above
MCQ 17: The difference in disaccharides is due to
A. number of H atoms
B. arrangement of atoms within
C. number of C atoms
D. number of O atoms
MCQ 18: Smallest carbohydrate is
A. glyceraldehyde
B. glucose
C. fructose
D. galactose
MCQ 19: L and D are
A. epimers
B. enantiomers
C. both A and B
D. isomers
MCQ 20: everything is eclipsed in
A. chair conformation
B. boat conformation
C. twist boat conformation
D. planer conformation
MCQ 21: A monosaccharide switches from an open chain to a cyclic form through
A. hydroxylation
B. carbation
C. nucleophilic addition
D. hydrogenation
MCQ 22: If carbonyl group is an aldehyde the monosaccharide is
A. ketose
B. tetroses
C. aldose
D. none of above
MCQ 23: Structural polysaccharide among the following list is
A. starch
B. cellulose
C. glycogen
D. none of above
MCQ 24: When all the monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are the same type then
polysaccharide is called
A. oligosaccharide
B. glycogen
C. homoglycan
D. heteroglycan
MCQ 25: The units of carbohydrates which cannot be further hydrolyzed to simpler
compounds are
A. disaccharides
B. polysaccharides
C. monosaccharides
D. none of above
MCQ 26: 6 carbon rings have the suffix
A. glucose
B. fructose
C. pyranose
D. pentose
MCQ 27: Starch is a glucose polymer in which glucopyranose units are bonded by
A. alpha linkages
B. beta linkages
C. gamma linkages
D. none of above
MCQ 28: The formula for monosaccharide is
A. (CH2O)n
B. CnH2n
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 29: 3 carbon monosaccharides are called
A. trioses
B. tetroses
C. pentoses
D. hexoses
MCQ 30: In naming cyclic carbohydrates the anomers are placed in the
A. beginning
B. end
C. middle
D. none of above
MCQ 31: Cyclic monosaccharides contain number of carbon atoms
A. 5-6
B. 2-4
C. 1-3
D. 5-10
MCQ 32: When 2 to 20 monosaccharidic units are linked by glycosidic bonds then
they form
A. polysaccharides
B. monosaccharides
C. oligosaccharides
D. none of above
MCQ 33: Number of monosaccharide units a polysaccharide contain are
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 10
MCQ 34: Milk sugar is made from
A. maltose and fructose
B. sucrose and fructose
C. glucose and fructose
D. glucose and galactose
MCQ 35: For the hydrolysis of starch, the catalyst used is
A. glycosylase
B. amylase
C. polymerase
D. helicase
MCQ 36: The glucose is a monosaccharide and is a
A. hexose
B. pentose
C. furanose
D. sucrose
MCQ 37: When carbon 5 attacks the carbonyl carbon then fructose forms a
A. furanose
B. glucose
C. hexose
D. pentose
MCQ 38: Carbohydrates are also termed as
A. crabs
B. carbs
C. cerbs
D. glycosides
MCQ 39: All the sugars end with
A. ase
B. ice
C. osi
D. ose
MCQ 40: When mixed with iodine glycogen turns
A. blue
B. purple
C. pink
D. red
MCQ 41: The simplest form of sugars are usually
A. colorless
B. water soluble
C. crystalline
D. all of above
Answers Key:
1. A2. D
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. D
41. D
Citric Acid Cycle
MCQ 1: Citric acid cycle is involved in breakdown ofA. vitamins
B. carbohydrates
C. proteins
D. both B and C
MCQ 2: ATP and NADH inhibit
A. isocitrate hydrogenase
B. isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. pyruvate hydrogenase
MCQ 3: In hydration, fumarate is converted by fumarase to
A. L-Malate
B. D-Malate
C. A-Malate
D. C-Malate
MCQ 4: The other names for citric acid cycle are
A. krebs cycle
B. tricarboxylic acid cycle
C. both A and B
D. kerbs cycle
MCQ 5: High levels of NADH will lower the concentration of
A. acetate
B. dehydrogenase
C. oxaloacetate
D. carbonate
MCQ 6: The simplest pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme in E.coli contains
A. 50 subunits
B. 60 subunits
C. 70 subunits
D. 80 subunits
MCQ 7: Last step of citric acid cycle is named as
A. decarboxylation
B. oxidation
C. hydrogenation
D. aldol condensation
MCQ 8: The enzyme which helps in conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA is called
A. pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. pyruvate hydrogenase
C. helicase
D. gyrase
MCQ 9: In citric acid cycle, the number of NADH produced are
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
MCQ 10: The reactions of the TCA cycle serves to degrade the 2 carbon unit of
acetyl-CoA into
A. water
B. carbon dioxide
C. oxygen
D. proteins
MCQ 11: In cells with higher TCA activity, the NADP- dependent variant is present at
higher activity than
A. NAD- dependent
B. NADH- dependent
C. NADPH- dependent
D. none of above
MCQ 12: In substrate level phostphorylation, Succinyl CoA is converted in to Succi-
nate by
A. Succinyl-CoA hydrogenase
B. Succinyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C. Succinyl-CoA synthetase
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. D2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. C
DNA Replication
MCQ 1: The complementary RNA bases to 3' ends of DNA strand are added byA. polymerase
B. telomerase
C. gyrase
D. helicase
MCQ 2: The strand that contains okazaki fragments is
A. leading strand
B. lagging strand
C. RNA
D. all of above
MCQ 3: If replication was completely conservative then
A. one heavy and one light strand would be seen
B. both heavy strands would be seen
C. both light strands would be seen
D. none of above
MCQ 4: Newly synthesized DNA contains
A. both new strands
B. both old strands
C. one new and one old strand
D. only one strand
MCQ 5: The specific chromosomal locations from where the replication begins are
called
A. locus
B. origin of replication
C. loci
D. chromosomal arms
MCQ 6: The ends of linear chromosomes are known as
A. telomeres
B. isomers
C. replicated forks
D. chromosomal arms
MCQ 7: When DNA polymerase meets an adenine nucleotide on the template
strand then at 3' end it adds
A. cytocine
B. guanine
C. uracil
D. thymine
MCQ 8: Replication occurs once every cell generation during
A. S phase
B. T phase
C. C phase
D. A phase
MCQ 9: All the biological DNA synthesis occurs from the
A. 3' end to 5' end
B. 5' end to 3' end
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 10: In humans, a six base pair sequence TTAGGG is repeated
A. 50 times
B. 100 times
C. 100-1000 times
D. 10,000 times
MCQ 11: Transition occurs when purine is substituted with
A. pyrimidine
B. pyrol
C. purine
D. none of above
MCQ 12: The enzyme which is responsible for unwinding the DNA at the replication
fork is called
A. DNA gyrase
B. primase
C. helicase
D. okazaki fragments
MCQ 13: Single base substitutions are called
A. mutations
B. point mutations
C. replication
D. recombination
MCQ 14: The enzyme that makes DNA complementary to the unwound DNA is
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA gyrase
C. helicase
D. DNA polymerase
MCQ 15: Protein which is responsible for keeping the DNA unwound after unwind-
ing is
A. SSB proteins
B. SSC proteins
C. SSA proteins
D. SSD proteins
MCQ 16: Eukaryotic DNA is bound to histones to form
A. nucleotides
B. nucleosides
C. nucleosomes
D. nucleofomes
MCQ 17: The synthesis that proceeds in the direction of the replication fork is the
A. leading strand
B. lagging strand
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 18: Most of the mistakes during DNA replication are corrected by
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. gyrase
D. helicase
MCQ 19: Okazaki fragments are stitched together by
A. primase
B. ligase
C. hydrogenase
D. gyrase
MCQ 20: Telomerase is typically active in
A. germ cells
B. adult stem cells
C. both A and B
D. somatic cells
MCQ 21: Proof reading of newly synthesized DNA is done by
A. DNA ligase
B. hydrogenase
C. gyrase
D. DNA polymerase
MCQ 22: When DNA opens up the y shaped structures are called
A. replication forks
B. single stands
C. parent strand
D. none of above
MCQ 23: The change in nucleotide sequence of a short region of genome is called
A. replication
B. recombination
C. repair
D. mutation
MCQ 24: DNA synthesis is
A. unidirectional
B. bidirectional
C. nondirectional
D. none of above
MCQ 25: All newly synthesized polynucleotide strands must be initiated by
A. RNA polymerase
B. DNA polymerase
C. gyrase
D. helicase
Answers Key:
1. B2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. A
Enzyme Activity
MCQ 1: An enzyme which requires a biological change in order to become active is
called
A. Transferase
B. zymogen
C. hydrogenase
D. trypsin
MCQ 2: On the top of active site, allosteric enzymes contain
A. inhibitors
B. substrate
C. allosteric site
D. polypeptide chains
MCQ 3: Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of
A. enzymes
B. carbohydrates
C. vitamins
D. proteins
MCQ 4: Number of substrate molecules converted in to product by one molecule
of enzyme active site per unit time is called
A. turnover number
B. substrate number
C. reaction number
D. none of above
MCQ 5: The substrate concentration that produces exactly half of the maximum
reaction rate can be described by
A. Michaelis equation
B. Menten equation
C. Bernoulli equation
D. Michaelis-Menten equation
MCQ 6: In enzymatic mechanism the substrate bind to enzyme active site to pro-
duce
A. reactant
B. enzymes
C. products
D. all of above
MCQ 7: In non-competitive inhibition the extent of inhibition depends only on
A. concentration of enzyme
B. concentration of substrate
C. concentration of inhibitor
D. concentration of ES complex
MCQ 8: Enzymes that are involved in the control and regulation of biological
process are
A. allosteric enzymes
B. inhibitors
C. regulators
D. none of above
MCQ 9: In competitive inhibition, the two things that binds to enzyme active site
are
A. substrate
B. inhibitor
C. catalyst
D. both A and B
MCQ 10: In mixed inhibition, the inhibitor binds on the enzyme
A. allosterically
B. at the active site
C. doesn't bind on the enzyme
D. binds on the substrate
MCQ 11: The nonsubstrate molecules that binds to the allosteric sites are called
A. inhibitors
B. reactants
C. allosteric substrate
D. allosteric modulators
MCQ 12: The complex that forms when a substrate binds to enzyme is called
A. enzyme-substrate complex
B. enzyme complex
C. substrate complex
D. structural complex
MCQ 13: Allosteric enzymes consist of multiple
A. inhibitors
B. polypeptide chains
C. active sites
D. temperature ranges
MCQ 14: In uncompetitive inhibition the inhibitor binds only to
A. enzyme
B. substrate
C. ES-complex
D. all of above
MCQ 15: The allosteric effect in mixed inhibition changes the
A. shape of substrate
B. shape of enzyme
C. shape of inhibitor
D. none of above
MCQ 16: Enzyme-catalyzed modifications are
A. reversible
B. irreversible
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 17: Competitive inhibition can be overcome by using
A. low concentration of substrate
B. high concentration of substrate
C. high concentration of inhibitor
D. moderate concentration of inhibitor
MCQ 18: Competitive inhibitors and real substrate often have similar
A. structure
B. chemical properties
C. physical properties
D. none of above
MCQ 19: Pancreatic zymogens are only activated when they reach the
A. stomach
B. pancreas
C. small intestine
D. large intestine
MCQ 20: In non-competitive inhibition, the quantity which remains same as the
reaction proceed is
A. Vmax
B. Km
C. Ko
D. Vo
MCQ 21: Covalent modification is means of changing
A. chemical properties
B. physical properties
C. bonding on amino acids
D. pH of amino acids
MCQ 22: The chief cells at the base of the gastric glands secrete the zymogen which
is called
A. pepsinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsin
D. trypsin
MCQ 23: Decreasing Vmax in uncompetitive inhibition also decreases
A. Km
B. ko
C. Vo
D. both A and B
Answers Key:
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. A
Enzyme Structure and Function
MCQ 1: Bond specificity is also called
A. relative specificity
B. size specificity
C. group specificity
D. none of above
MCQ 2: In case of induced fit model
A. the substrate change it's shape slightly
B. the enzyme change it's shape slightly
C. none of them changes shape
D. both changes shapes
MCQ 3: The substrate binds to specific region of enzyme called
A. key
B. active site
C. hyperactive site
D. none of above
MCQ 4: Transmethylases helps in transfer of
A. methyl group
B. ethyl group
C. amino group
D. acetyl group
MCQ 5: Enzymes do not change the
A. conc. Of reactants
B. conc. Of products
C. Keq
D. both A and B
MCQ 6: The number of models that represent enzyme-substrate model are
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
MCQ 7: Ligases helps in the
A. splitting of two molecules
B. joining of molecules
C. oxidation of molecules
D. both B and C
MCQ 8: The energy required to start a reaction is called
A. startup energy
B. point energy
C. activation energy
D. all of above
MCQ 9: Enzymes which are involved in transfer of electrons are
A. oxidases
B. dehydrogenases
C. both A and B
D. hydrolases
MCQ 10: Vitamins which are not stored in body are called
A. fat soluble vitamins
B. water soluble vitamins
C. minerals
D. fats
MCQ 11: Vitamin which doesn't act as a coenzyme is
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin B
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin B2
MCQ 12: The primary function of cofactors is to
A. assist in enzyme activity
B. assist in enzyme synthesis
C. assist in enzyme inhibition
D. none of above
MCQ 13: Enzymes binds with chemical reactant called
A. products
B. reactants
C. substrates
D. all of above
MCQ 14: A small organic, non protein molecule that carries chemical groups be-
tween enzymes is
A. cofactor
B. coenzyme
C. catalyst
D. substrate
MCQ 15: Enzymes showing substrate specificity are specific to only
A. two substrates
B. four substrates
C. one substrate
D. three substrates
MCQ 16: Non toxic vitamins include
A. vitamin B complex
B. vitamin C
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 17: The effect of competitive inhibitor on enzyme activity is such that it
A. decreases enzyme activity
B. increases enzyme activity
C. doesn't change enzyme activity
D. none of above
MCQ 18: Cofactors can be divided in to
A. two groups
B. four groups
C. six groups
D. eight groups
MCQ 19: Enzyme which helps in changing the shape of molecule is called
A. ligases
B. dehydrogenases
C. hydrolases
D. isomerases
MCQ 20: Catalysts that increase the rate of biological chemical reaction are called
A. proteins
B. vitamins
C. minerals
D. enzymes
MCQ 21: According to lock and key model the substrate acts as a
A. key
B. lock
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 22: On increasing the temperature the shape of enzyme's active site
A. remains same
B. change
C. becomes a regular geometrical shape
D. none of above
MCQ 23: The number of water soluble vitamins is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 9
D. 5
MCQ 24: While bound to the active site, the substrate is converted in to the
A. product of the reaction
B. a complex
C. another substrate of high energy
D. all of above
MCQ 25: In enzyme catalytic reaction the substrate is first converted to a high en-
ergy state called
A. transition state
B. high energy state
C. breaking point
D. none of above
MCQ 26: Optimal pH for working of enzymes is
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
MCQ 27: The enzyme increases the rate of reaction by
A. decreasing kinetic energy
B. decreasing chemical energy
C. decreasing activation energy
D. decreasing potential energy
MCQ 28: If the enzyme change the active site the rate of reaction will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remains same
D. both B and C
MCQ 29: A metal cofactor which is used in synthesis of glycolysis is
A. Fe+3
B. Mn+2
C. Co+2
D. Mg2
MCQ 30: The reaction will proceed faster if the activation energy is
A. high
B. low
C. remains constant
D. none of above
MCQ 31: Water soluble vitamin include
A. riboflavin
B. vitamin C
C. niacin
D. all of above
MCQ 32: The enzyme involved in splitting or formation of C-C bond is called
A. oxidases
B. dehydrogenases
C. transglycosidases
D. desmolases
MCQ 33: A non-protein chemical compound which is required for protein's biolog-
ical activity is
A. coenzyme
B. cofactor
C. DNA
D. RNA
MCQ 34: Water soluble vitamins contain high proportion of
A. electronegative oxygen
B. nitrogen atoms
C. both A and B
D. sulfur
MCQ 35: The optimal temperature for enzymes to work in body is
A. 30°C
B. 32°C
C. 35°C
D. 37°C
Answers Key:
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. D
32. D
33. B
34. C
35. D
Eukaryotic Chromosome Organization
MCQ 1: When the molecule relieves the helical stress by twisting around itself then
the phenomena is called
A. coiling
B. supercoiling
C. elongation
D. compression
MCQ 2: Euchromatin is the
A. lightly packed form of chromatin
B. tightly packed form of chromatin
C. concentrated form of chromatin
D. elongated form of chromatin
MCQ 3: The type of chromatin that participates in the active transcription of DNA to
mRNA products is
A. heterochromatin
B. euchromatin
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 4: Percentage of human genome to be euchromatic is
A. 72%
B. 52%
C. 92%
D. 50%
MCQ 5: The signal for formation of a regional centromere appears to be
A. eugenetic
B. progenetic
C. epigenetic
D. pregenetic
MCQ 6: The tightly packed form of DNA is called
A. supercoiling
B. compressed state
C. euchromatin
D. heterochromatin
MCQ 7: A type of heterochromatin that is usually repetitive and forms structural
functions such as centromeres or telomeres is
A. constitutive heterochromatin
B. facultative heterochromatin
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 8: In prokaryotes the single copy DNA is present
A. 40% per genome
B. 30% per genome
C. 20% per genome
D. 10% per genome
MCQ 9: Centromeres are of
A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 5 types
MCQ 10: In humans the sequence TTAGGG is repeated
A. 3000 times
B. 4000 times
C. 2500 times
D. 3500 times
MCQ 11: If the centromere is located at the terminal end of chromosome then it's
called
A. metacentric
B. submetacentric
C. acrocentric
D. telocentric
MCQ 12: The region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of chromatid is
A. centromere
B. telomere
C. isomers
D. all of above
MCQ 13: Heterochromatin is usually localized to the periphery of the
A. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm
C. nucleus
D. cell wall
MCQ 14: During mitosis, spindle fibers attach to the centromere via
A. kinetochore
B. spindle
C. microtubule
D. none of above
MCQ 15: Over twisting a molecule leads to
A. positive supercoiling
B. negative supercoiling
C. elongation
D. compression
MCQ 16: In most eukaryotic organisms telomerase is active only in
A. germ cells
B. embryonic stem cells
C. certain white blood cells
D. all of above
MCQ 17: For vertebrates, the sequence of nucleotides in telomeres is
A. GGGTAA
B. AAAGTT
C. TTTAGG
D. TTAGGG
MCQ 18: When DNA helix has normal number of base pairs per helical turn then it
is in
A. coiled state
B. supercoiled state
C. normal state
D. elongated state
MCQ 19: Proteins responsible for the compact packing and winding of chromo-
somal DNA are
A. histones
B. nonhistones
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 20: Part of chromosome that links sister chromatids is called
A. telomere
B. centromere
C. isomer
D. polymer
MCQ 21: In mammals and insects, the repetitive DNA lies in
A. nodes
B. centromere
C. arms
D. all over chromosome
MCQ 22: Changing the twist from relaxed state requires adding energy and in-
creases the
A. stress along the molecule
B. strain over the molecule
C. forces in the molecule
D. none of above
MCQ 23: Most protein coding genes are
A. single copy DNA
B. repetitive DNA
C. RNA
D. none of above
MCQ 24: If the length of chromosome arms are unequal then chromosome is said
to be
A. metacentric
B. submetacentric
C. acrocentric
D. telocentric
Answers Key:
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. B
Evolution
MCQ 1: Mating with non-relatives is
A. inbreeding
B. outbreeding
C. breeding
D. none of above
MCQ 2: Mating between relatives is called
A. exbreeding
B. breeding
C. inbreeding
D. all of above
MCQ 3: The severe reduction in population size is
A. genetic drift
B. bottleneck
C. outbreeding
D. inbreeding
MCQ 4: If an individual does not reproduce then it's fitness is
A. 100
B. 50
C. 40
D. 0
MCQ 5: The ability to pass on genes is defined as
A. fitness
B. differential reproduction
C. evolution
D. natural selection
MCQ 6: The genetic change in a population caused by natural selection is called
A. polymorphism
B. adaptation
C. specialization
D. gene linkage
MCQ 7: The random change in allele frequencies is
A. genetic drift
B. diversity
C. linkage
D. all of above
MCQ 8: Two species can avoid competition, and better use the environment's re-
sources by occupying different
A. adaptations
B. polymorphism
C. nitches
D. specialization
MCQ 9: When two or more clearly different phenotypes exists in same population
of species, the phenomenon is called
A. polymorphism
B. replication
C. gene linkage
D. gene expression
MCQ 10: Adaptation is caused by
A. Darwin's natural selection
B. Lamark's ideas
C. Hardy
D. Weinberg
MCQ 11: Adaptation of traits to better fill a niche is called
A. polymorphism
B. gene linkage
C. specialization
D. replication
MCQ 12: The frequency of allele if it is evolutionary successful is
A. increased
B. decreased
C. moderate
D. zero
MCQ 13: As long as two species occupy different niches, there is
A. competition
B. no competition
C. no polymorphism
D. polymorphism
MCQ 14: Inbreeding increases the frequency of
A. homozygous
B. heterozygous
C. genetic diversity
D. genetic linkage
MCQ 15: The effect of genetic drift increases as the population size
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. none of above
MCQ 16: Outbreeding increases
A. homozygosity
B. hetereozygosity
C. genetic linkage
D. gene pool
MCQ 17: Bottlenecks increases the effect of
A. genetic linkage
B. genetic expression
C. genetic diversity
D. gene pool
MCQ 18: Population growth is checked by
A. competition
B. no competition
C. no polymorphism
D. polymorphism
MCQ 19: When resources gets scarce, the population growth
A. becomes fast
B. slows down
C. remains same
D. none of above
MCQ 20: Individuals who reproduce less viable offspring are selected
A. for
B. against
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 21: The selection for a trait on one extreme is called
A. natural selection
B. directional selection
C. stabilizing selection
D. all of above
Answers Key:
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. B
Chapter 10
Fatty Acids and Proteins Metabolism
MCQ 1: In deamination, the amino acid is converted in to
A. aldol acid
B. keto acid
C. hydrochloric acid
D. carboxylic acid
MCQ 2: In anabolism, the cellular size
A. decreases
B. remains same
C. increases
D. becomes zero
MCQ 3: Ketone bodies include
A. acetone
B. acetoacetic acid
C. beta-hydroxybutyric acid
D. all of above
MCQ 4: Ketone bodies are produced by
A. stomach
B. liver
C. kidneys
D. gal bladder
MCQ 5: Ketone bodies are made from
A. acetone
B. hydrochloric acid
C. acetyl-CoA
D. acetoacetic acid
MCQ 6: Number of water soluble molecules ketone bodies include are
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
MCQ 7: Acetone is a ketone body which is a degradation breakdown product of
A. hydrochloric acid
B. acetic acid
C. citric acid
D. acetoacetic acid
MCQ 8: The nature of anabolism reaction is
A. exergonic
B. endergonic
C. spontaneous
D. non spontaneous
MCQ 9: Biosynthesis of complex molecules from simpler forms is called
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. none of above
MCQ 10: Glycogen in liver is used for
A. plasma glucose
B. starch synthesis
C. amylose syntheis
D. none of above
MCQ 11: The function of proteins is to
A. transport oxygen to hemoglobin
B. catalyze biochemical reactions
C. regulate reactions
D. all of above
MCQ 12: Transamination is catalyzed by
A. transferases
B. aminotransferases
C. hydrogenases
D. dehydrogenases
MCQ 13: Ketone bodies cannot be used for energy by
A. liver
B. heart
C. brain
D. both B and C
MCQ 14: Glycerol 1 phosphate reacts with acetyl CoA to produce
A. phosphoric acid
B. lactic acid
C. citric acid
D. phosphatidic acid
MCQ 15: The process of breakdown of amino acids to α keto acids is called
A. cisamination
B. amination
C. transamination
D. all of above
MCQ 16: Brain gets energy from ketone bodies if availability of glucose is
A. constant
B. less
C. high
D. none of above
MCQ 17: The condition in which the rate of synthesis of ketone bodies exceeds the
rate of utilization is called
A. ketonemia
B. anemia
C. diabetes
D. color blindness
Answers Key:
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. B
17. A
Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
MCQ 1: Within chromosomes, DNA is held in complexes with
A. vitamins
B. amino acids
C. structural proteins
D. minerals
MCQ 2: The amplification of rRNA genes occurs during the development of
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ova
D. none of above
MCQ 3: Using a treatment or set of experimental conditions with a expected result
involves
A. positive control
B. negative control
C. radial control
D. all of above
MCQ 4: Percentage of cancers due to genetic defects inherited from person's par-
ents ranges from
A. 10%-20%
B. 20%-30%
C. 5%-10%
D. 30%-40%
MCQ 5: Hypomethylation can cause
A. TB
B. fever
C. Sugar
D. cancer
MCQ 6: The lac operon expresses the genes whose products catabolize
A. maltose
B. phosphate
C. sucrose
D. lactose
MCQ 7: The number of cancer types which can affect human health is
A. 100
B. 50
C. 30
D. 20
MCQ 8: The experiment went wrong if there is no growth of bactria in
A. petri dish
B. positive control group
C. in the solution
D. none of above
MCQ 9: The increase in number of copies of genes is called
A. gene duplication
B. gene amplification
C. gene cloning
D. gene location
MCQ 10: The signs and symptoms of cancer include
A. a new lump
B. abnormal bleeding
C. prolonged cough
D. all of above
MCQ 11: Structural proteins organize the DNA in to a compact structure called
A. chromosomes
B. chromatin
C. ribosomes
D. organelles
MCQ 12: Mutations at the promoter block the initiation of
A. translation
B. replication
C. transcription
D. none of above
MCQ 13: Error in DNA replication that can produce duplications of short genetic se-
quence is called
A. ectopic recombination
B. replication slippage
C. retotransposition
D. aneuploidy
MCQ 14: In RNA splicing the introns are removed and
A. exons remain
B. exons are also removed
C. gene amplifies
D. gene cloning takes place
MCQ 15: The modification of histones can affect
A. transcription
B. gene expression
C. both A and B
D. translation
MCQ 16: Adenine methylation is restricted to
A. eukaryotes
B. prokaryotes
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 17: The group of proteins that read and interpret genetic "blueprint" in DNA
are called
A. translation factors
B. replication factors
C. transcriptional factors
D. none of above
MCQ 18: In eukaryotes DNA methylation is done by
A. methypolymerase
B. methyltransferse
C. methylgyrase
D. methylhelicase
MCQ 19: The inhibition of gene expression by changing regulatory protein activity is
termed as
A. gene expression
B. gene repression
C. gene mutation
D. gene localization
MCQ 20: lacA encodes a detoxifying enzyme called
A. β-galactoside transacetylase
B. helicase
C. polymerase
D. gyrase
MCQ 21: Control over polymerase access to gene includes
A. functions of histone remodeling enzymes
B. transcription factors
C. enhancers and repressors
D. all of above
MCQ 22: Tumors that do not spread to other parts of body are called
A. malignant neoplasm
B. malignant tumor
C. both A and B
D. benign tumors
MCQ 23: Tumor suppressor gene usually
A. slows down the cell division
B. make the process fast
C. stops the cell division
D. none of above
MCQ 24: In E.coli the metabolism of lactose requires at least
A. 2 proteins
B. 3 proteins
C. 4 proteins
D. 5 proteins
MCQ 25: Expression of prokaryotic operons leads to the generation of
A. polycistronic mRNA
B. monocistronic mRNA
C. polycistronic tRNA
D. monocistronic tRNA
MCQ 26: A disk shaped complex which contains two complete turns of DNA is
called
A. nucleotide
B. nucleosome
C. nucleus
D. none of above
MCQ 27: The means by which a cell regulates the conversion of DNA to RNA is
A. translational regulation
B. replication regulation
C. transcriptional regulation
D. post transcriptional regulation
MCQ 28: A non coding RNA is not translated in to
A. DNA
B. vitamins
C. proteins
D. tRNA
MCQ 29: Dysfunction of suppressor genes will cause cells to become
A. cancerous
B. tumor
C. degenerate
D. burst
MCQ 30: The common site of regulation is
A. chromatin
B. nucleus
C. mitochondria
D. cytoplasm
MCQ 31: The structure of chromatin can be modified by
A. methylation
B. acetylation
C. phosphorylation
D. all of above
MCQ 32: An operon is made up of
A. promoter
B. operator
C. structural genes
D. all of above
MCQ 33: Sequence-specific DNA-binding proteins generally interact with major
group of
A. B-DNA
B. A-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. C-DNA
MCQ 34: In Jacob- Monod model, the operator prevents the binding of
A. repressor
B. expresser
C. operon
D. telomere
MCQ 35: The number of proteins in human genome are
A. 2500
B. 2000
C. 2600
D. 3000
MCQ 36: Non coding RNAs regulate
A. RNA splicing
B. DNA replication
C. gene regulation
D. all of above
MCQ 37: A mechanism through which new genetic material is generated during
molecular evolution is called
A. gene duplication
B. gene amplification
C. gene cloning
D. all of above
MCQ 38: Oncogenes usually speeds up the
A. cell division
B. cell regulation
C. gene mutation
D. replication
MCQ 39: Cancer is also known as
A. malignant neoplasm
B. malignant tumor
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 40: Gene amplification usually occurs in
A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. replication
D. transcription
MCQ 41: If oncogenes are inactive they are
A. still harmful
B. harmless
C. cause tumors
D. cause cancers
MCQ 42: The number of transcription factors increases with
A. larger genome size
B. smaller genome size
C. large chromosome
D. small chromosome
MCQ 43: Characteristics of cancer include
A. self sufficiency in growth signaling
B. evasion of apoptosis
C. insensitivity to anti growth signals
D. all of above
MCQ 44: When methyl groups are added to DNA then the process is called
A. methylation
B. acetylation
C. phosphorylation
D. carbonation
MCQ 45: Splicing protects RNA from
A. replication
B. amplification
C. degeneration
D. degradation
MCQ 46: The number of non coding RNAs within human genome is
A. 50
B. 100
C. unknown
D. 200
MCQ 47: Functional unit of genomic DNA containing a cluster of genes under con-
trol of single promoter is termed as
A. operon
B. chromatin
C. polymer
D. telomere
MCQ 48: The repeating subunit of chromatin is called
A. nucleus
B. nucleotide
C. nucleosome
D. DNA network
MCQ 49: Genes linked on E coli chromosome are
A. lacZ
B. lacY
C. lacA
D. all of above
MCQ 50: A gene that has a potential to cause cancer is named as
A. oncogenes
B. octogenes
C. mutant genes
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. A
34. A
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. C
49. D
50. A
Genetic Code
MCQ 1: DNA makes RNA and RNA makes protein is termed as
A. central dogma
B. simple dogma
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 2: Degeneracy of genetic code was identified by
A. Watson
B. Crick
C. Lagervist
D. Darwin
MCQ 3: Degeneracy results because there are more codons than
A. decodable amino acids
B. encodable amino acids
C. encodable DNA
D. encodable RNA
MCQ 4: The process of genetic information flowing from DNA to RNA to proteins
is called
A. gene annealing
B. gene mutation
C. gene expression
D. gene therapy
MCQ 5: The nonsense codons are
A. amber
B. ochre
C. opal
D. all of above
MCQ 6: The triplet bases on DNA and mRNA is known as
A. code
B. codon
C. anti codon
D. none of above
MCQ 7: Messenger RNA is synthesized during
A. translation
B. transcription
C. replication
D. DNA synthesis
MCQ 8: Anti codon describes the triplet bases on
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
MCQ 9: The triplet code of DNA has a group of
A. 2 bases
B. 4 bases
C. 6 bases
D. 3 bases
MCQ 10: Missense mutation can result in disease like
A. Cancer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sickle cell
D. Fever
MCQ 11: The glutamic acid is specified by
A. GAA
B. GAG
C. both A and B
D. UCA
MCQ 12: A molecule in cells that carries codes from DNA in nucleus to the sites of
protein synthesis in cytoplasm is
A. tRNA
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. all of above
MCQ 13: The dogma classes in to
A. 2 groups
B. 3 groups
C. 4 groups
D. 5 groups
MCQ 14: A codon for which no normal tRNA molecule exists is called
A. Missense codon
B. nonsense codon
C. point mutation
D. none of above
MCQ 15: Stop codon signal the termination of translation by binding
A. release factors
B. amber
C. ochre
D. opal
MCQ 16: Pairing between two nucleotides in RNA that does not follow Watson-
Crick base pair rules is called
A. degeneracy
B. base pairing
C. Lagervist pairing
D. wobble pairing
MCQ 17: Hypoxanthine is the nucleobase of
A. cytocine
B. inosine
C. trypsin
D. none of above
MCQ 18: In eukaryotes the initiation codons always codes for
A. methionine
B. cytocine
C. Met
D. none of above
MCQ 19: A point mutation in which a single nucleotide change results in a codon is
A. Missense mutation
B. nonsense mutation
C. point mutation
D. all of above
MCQ 20: Codons are
A. non-overlapping
B. continuous
C. degenerate
D. all of above
MCQ 21: When the mutation in codon may not produce any change in translation
then it is called
A. point mutation
B. silent mutation
C. missense mutation
D. nonsense mutation
MCQ 22: The presence of nonsense codon causes termination of
A. translation
B. transcription
C. DNA synthesis
D. DNA replication
MCQ 23: The wobble base pairs are
A. G-U
B. I-U
C. I-A
D. all of above
MCQ 24: Messenger RNA is
A. single stranded
B. double stranded
C. forms a sheet
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. D
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. A
Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis and Pentose Phosphate Pathway
MCQ 1: The total ATP after electron transport chain is
A. 34 ATP
B. 35 ATP
C. 36 ATP
D. 37 ATP
MCQ 2: In gluconeogenesis, glucose is generated by
A. non carbohydrate carbon substrates
B. carbohydrate carbon substrates
C. sucrose
D. yeast
MCQ 3: Fermentation takes place in
A. absence of oxygen
B. presence of oxygen
C. presence of carbon
D. presence of nitrogen
MCQ 4: The molecule generated in oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway
is
A. NADP
B. NADPH
C. ADP
D. ATP
MCQ 5: In fermentation process, the sugars are converted into
A. acids
B. gases
C. alcohol
D. all of above
MCQ 6: Gluconeogenesis is often associated with
A. ketosis
B. hexoses
C. pentoses
D. none of above
MCQ 7: The number of phases in pentose phosphate pathway are
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
MCQ 8: The primary role of pentose phosphate pathway is
A. catabolic
B. anabolic
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 9: In humans the main gluconeogenic precursors are
A. lactate
B. glycerol
C. alanine
D. all of above
MCQ 10: The number of pathways aerobic respiration process follows are
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
MCQ 11: Citric acid cycle produces number of NADH molecules
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
MCQ 12: In vertebrates, gluconeogenesis mainly takes place in
A. stomach
B. liver
C. heart
D. intestine
MCQ 13: Pentose phosphate pathway is parallel to
A. glycolysis
B. gluconeogenesis
C. fermentation
D. respiration
MCQ 14: Pentose phosphate pathway is also termed as
A. glycolysis
B. gluconeogenesis
C. phosphogluconate pathway
D. none of above
MCQ 15: In glycolysis glucose is converted in to
A. pyruvate
B. glycogen
C. sucrose
D. starch
MCQ 16: The net ATP production of glycolysis is
A. 2 ATPs
B. 3 ATPs
C. 4 ATPs
D. 5 ATPs
MCQ 17: Krebs's cycle occurs in
A. mitochondria
B. nucleus
C. cytoplasm
D. cell membrane
MCQ 18: The number of enzyme catalyzed reactions in gluconeogenesis are
A. 12
B. 13
C. 11
D. 10
MCQ 19: The process of fermentation occurs in
A. yeast
B. bacteria
C. both A and B
D. viruses
MCQ 20: Gluconeogenesis is useful for
A. maintaining blood glucose level
B. avoiding low blood glucose level
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 21: One glucose molecule can give number of pyruvate molecules
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5
MCQ 22: The process of glycolysis occurs in
A. nucleus
B. cell wall
C. cell membrane
D. cytoplasm
MCQ 23: Cell's primary means of ATP production is
A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. metabolism
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. C
21. C
22. D
23. B
Hormonal Regulation and Metabolism Integration
MCQ 1: Thyroid hormones regulate
A. sleep walk
B. T cell development
C. metabolism
D. growth
MCQ 2: To maintain the normal level, intracellular glycogen stores promotes
A. citric acid cycle
B. gluconeogenesis
C. glycolysis
D. none of above
MCQ 3: The hormone which is responsible for storage of calcium in bones is
A. melatonin
B. thymus
C. insulin
D. calcitonin
MCQ 4: The ratio of body's mass to body's height is
A. mass index
B. height index
C. body mass index
D. none of above
MCQ 5: The uptake of glucose in to cells and used by tissues is promoted by
A. homeostasis
B. hormone regulation
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 6: Body mass index for an underweight person is
A. 30 or greater
B. 18.5 or less
C. 18.5-24.9
D. 25-29.9
MCQ 7: 50-90% of body's oxygen is supplied to
A. heart
B. muscles
C. blood
D. brain
MCQ 8: Tissues regulated by hormones are
A. cardiac
B. epidermal
C. adipose
D. none of above
MCQ 9: Percentage body mass covered by adipose tissues is
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
MCQ 10: The center of processing and distribution of nutrients is
A. stomach
B. liver
C. heart
D. kidneys
MCQ 11: Pancreas releases the hormones
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. both A and B
D. estrogen
MCQ 12: The hormone which helps in development of secondary sex traits is
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. progesterone
D. estrogen
MCQ 13: The stored energy is released by glucagon by synthesizing
A. glucose
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. minerals
MCQ 14: Phosphocreatine is used to store energy in
A. adipose tissue
B. epidermal tissues
C. brain
D. cardiac muscles
MCQ 15: The carrier of nutrients, ions and hormones throughout body is
A. heart
B. blood
C. brain
D. muscles
MCQ 16: In cori cycle lactate is converted in to
A. glucose
B. minerals
C. proteins
D. vitamins
MCQ 17: The condition in which excess amount of fat is accumulated in one's body
causing negative effects is called
A. obesity
B. heart failure
C. brain hambridge
D. diabetes
MCQ 18: The uptake of glucose by cells is stimulated by
A. insulin
B. estrogen
C. glucagon
D. thymus
MCQ 19: Liver converts glucose in to
A. proteins
B. vitamins
C. fatty acids
D. minerals
MCQ 20: Glucagon is stimulated by
A. insulin
B. thymus
C. melatonin
D. calcitonin
Answers Key:
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. A
Translation
MCQ 1: The type of RNA which carries genetic information copied from DNA in
form of series of three base codes is
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. all of above
MCQ 2: Adding a phosphate group to proteins is called
A. replication
B. hydrogenation
C. phosphorylation
D. carbation
MCQ 3: The mRNA links up with ribosomes to start
A. translation
B. transcription
C. replication
D. none of above
MCQ 4: The small subunit of the ribosome binds to the 5' end of
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA
MCQ 5: Ribosomes are made up of
A. RNA
B. rRNA
C. proteins
D. both B and C
MCQ 6: A phosphate group is added by protein enzyme called
A. kinase
B. helicase
C. gyrase
D. polymerase
MCQ 7: The actual genetic code used by cells is
A. double code
B. triplet code
C. single code
D. tetra code
MCQ 8: Phosphatase is a protein enzyme that removes
A. sulphate group
B. amino group
C. phosphate group
D. hydroxyl group
MCQ 9: To begin translation the initiation complex include
A. ribosomes
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. all of above
MCQ 10: A sequence of codons that runs from a specific start site to a terminating
codon is called a
A. frame
B. reading frame
C. reading site
D. reading cell
MCQ 11: In eukaryotes the initiator codon for methionine is
A. AUG
B. GUG
C. CUG
D. UAA
MCQ 12: Protein synthesis occurs
A. from P terminus to N terminus
B. from N terminus to P terminus
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 13: Ribosomes are located on
A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. nucleus
D. cytoplasm
MCQ 14: Synthesis of all protein chains in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells begins
with amino acid
A. methionine
B. adenine
C. proline
D. arginine
Answers Key:
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. A
Meiosis and Genetic Viability
MCQ 1: In humans, males have set of chromosome
A. XX
B. XY
C. YX
D. YY
MCQ 2: The tetrad is the four spores of a
A. human chromosome
B. stem cells
C. yeast
D. monkey
MCQ 3: Genes are linked if their loci are
A. far from each other
B. nearer to each other
C. lie on same chromosome arm
D. none of above
MCQ 4: In eukaryotes genetic recombination can lead to a novel set of genetic
information that can be passed on from the parents to offspring during
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. genetic expression
D. replication
MCQ 5: A base substitution that causes the regular codon to change in to another
codon that codes for different amino acid is said to be
A. nonsense mutation
B. silent mutation
C. missense mutation
D. none of above
MCQ 6: The enzymes that catalyse the strand transfer step during recombination
are called
A. recombinases
B. transferases
C. helicase
D. gyraze
MCQ 7: The process which is must during meiosis is
A. synapsis
B. mutation
C. crossing over
D. translation
MCQ 8: The variation in the off springs can come through
A. mitosis
B. test cross
C. crossing over
D. none of above
MCQ 9: Mutations in gene can
A. have no effect
B. alter the product of gene
C. prevent the gene from proper functioning
D. all of above
MCQ 10: The organelle which function to transform energy as a result of cellular
respiration is called
A. ribosomes
B. nucleus
C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts
MCQ 11: In both meiotic and mitotic cells, recombination between homologous
chromosomes is a common mechanism used in
A. DNA replication
B. transcription
C. DNA repair
D. translation
MCQ 12: The change in frequency of allele in a population due to random sampling
of organisms is
A. gene expression
B. gene linkage
C. genetic drift
D. gene mutation
MCQ 13: Sex-linked traits include
A. color blindness
B. Male pattern baldness
C. hemophilia
D. all of above
MCQ 14: Extranuclear inheritance commonly occur in
A. nucleus
B. cytoplasmic organelles
C. ribosomes
D. cell membrane
MCQ 15: Alfred Sturtevent developed genetic maps known as
A. linkage maps
B. genetic localization
C. genetic expression
D. genetic path
MCQ 16: The chromosome number in meiosis is
A. doubled
B. reduced by half
C. reduced by 2
D. increased by 3
MCQ 17: The XY set of chromosomes are termed as
A. allosomes
B. autosomes
C. anosomes
D. hetrosomes
MCQ 18: The addition or deletition of a nucleotide base pair involves
A. point mutation
B. silent mutation
C. nonsense mutation
D. frame shift mutation
MCQ 19: Meiosis was discovered by
A. Oscar Hertwig
B. Walther Flemming
C. Charles Darwin
D. none of above
MCQ 20: Independent assortment of genes occurs during meiosis in
A. prokaryotes
B. non living organisms
C. eukaryotes
D. unicellular colonies
MCQ 21: Advantageous mutation can help increase in
A. resistance to diseases
B. point mutation
C. number of amino acids
D. gene expression
MCQ 22: The tendency of alleles that are located close together on chromosome to
be inherited together during meiosis is
A. genetic linkage
B. genetic code
C. inheritance
D. gene expression
MCQ 23: The transmission of genes that occur outside the nucleus is called
A. extranuclear inheritance
B. cytoplasmic inheritance
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 24: When a single nucleotide base pair is substituted, the type of mutation oc-
curs is
A. random mutation
B. point mutation
C. inversion
D. mispairing
MCQ 25: If a gene is found on X chromosome only then it is said to be
A. X-linked
B. Y-linked
C. sex-linked trait
D. all of above
MCQ 26: The effect of genetic drift when there are few copies of an alleles is
A. larger
B. smaller
C. moderate
D. zero
MCQ 27: The process which restricts the multiplication of chromosome number
and maintains the stability of species is
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. replication
D. gene expression
MCQ 28: In humans naturally occurring oxidative DNA damages arise per cell per
day at least
A. 10,000 times
B. 50,000 times
C. 30,000 times
D. 60,000 times
MCQ 29: The ratio between the different segregation types arising after the sporu-
lation is the measure of
A. tetratype
B. linkage
C. recombination
D. replication
MCQ 30: A tetrad type containing two different genotypes is
A. non parental ditype
B. parental ditype
C. tetratype
D. none of above
MCQ 31: The synaptonemal complex is a tripartite structure consisting of
A. two parallel lateral regions
B. central element
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 32: Inborn errors of metabolism are referred to as
A. congenital metabolic diseases
B. inherited metabolic diseases
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 33: Carcinogens are always
A. mutagens
B. mutants
C. point mutants
D. silent mutant
MCQ 34: Random mutations occurs due to
A. radiation
B. chemicals
C. external factors
D. all of above
MCQ 35: The Y chromosome was identified in
A. 1905
B. 1906
C. 1950
D. 1850
MCQ 36: Genetic drift may cause gene variants to disappear completely reducing
A. gene expression
B. gene linkage
C. genetic variation
D. gene mutation
MCQ 37: The mutations which are harmful to the fitness of organism are called
A. advantageous mutation
B. deleterious mutation
C. silent mutation
D. nonsense mutation
MCQ 38: Independent assortment of genes and their corresponding traits were first
discovered by
A. Darwin
B. Oscar Hertwig
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Walther Flemming
MCQ 39: In mammals the Y chromosome carries the gene
A. SRY
B. RSY
C. RYS
D. YSR
MCQ 40: The synaptonemal complex was described by Montrose J. Moses in
A. 1920
B. 1956
C. 1965
D. 1970
MCQ 41: The inability to metabolize fructose due to the absence of aldolase B en-
zyme is
A. galactose intolerance
B. sugar intolerance
C. fructose intolerance
D. carbohydrate intolerance
MCQ 42: The number of Y linked genes which have been identified are
A. 100
B. 300
C. 400
D. 200
MCQ 43: Increasing genetic diversity means that the daughter chromosomes con-
tain genes from
A. single parent
B. both parents
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 44: In humans, diploid cells contain
A. 23 chromosomes
B. 46 chromosomes
C. 47 chromosomes
D. 24 chromosomes
MCQ 45: In mitosis the process of karyokinesis occurs in
A. telophase
B. interphase I
C. interphase
D. prophase
MCQ 46: A mechanism that occurs during prophase I of meiosis is
A. synapsis
B. mutation
C. crossing over
D. translation
MCQ 47: A substance that induces unregulated growth processes in cells or tissues
leading to cancer are called
A. mutagen
B. carcinogen
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 48: A permanent change of the nucleotide sequence of the genome is called
A. gene expression
B. bonding
C. mutation
D. replication
MCQ 49: Chloroplasts function to produce
A. ribosomes
B. energy
C. sugars
D. vitamins
MCQ 50: The outcomes of point mutations include
A. missense mutation
B. nonsense mutation
C. silent mutation
D. all of above
MCQ 51: All Y linked genes are
A. homozygous
B. hemizygous
C. hetereozygous
D. none of above
MCQ 52: The process of cell division that results in two genetically identical daugh-
ter cells developing from a single parent cell is
A. cell division
B. mitosis
C. meiosis
D. binary division
MCQ 53: The inherited metabolic diseases were classified as disorders of
A. carbohydrate metabolism
B. amino acid metabolism
C. organic acid metabolism
D. all of above
MCQ 54: Mitochondrial disease are received from
A. mother
B. father
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 55: During meiosis, genetic recombination involves pairing of
A. non homologous chromosomes
B. super coiled chromosomes
C. loosely coiled chromosomes
D. homologous chromosomes
MCQ 56: Genetic drift is the mechanism of
A. replication
B. transcription
C. translation
D. evolution
MCQ 57: The DNA in human Y chromosome is composed of about
A. 30 million base pairs
B. 40 million base pairs
C. 59 million base pairs
D. 50 million base pairs
MCQ 58: Number of chromosomes meiosis maintains is
A. 2n
B. 4n
C. 6n
D. same
MCQ 59: A protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during
meiosis is
A. chromosome complex
B. DNA complex
C. synaptonemal complex
D. none of above
MCQ 60: The recombinant frequency of 1% is equivalent to
A. 10 m.u
B. 20 m.u
C. 1 m.u
D. 5 m.u
MCQ 61: Single celled organisms are reproduced by
A. binary division
B. meiosis
C. mitosis
D. none of above
MCQ 62: Sex-linkage is linked to the
A. gender of organism
B. skin color of organism
C. body shape of organism
D. limb structure of organism
MCQ 63: Mutagens can be
A. harmful
B. neutral
C. beneficial
D. all of above
MCQ 64: If the two parents have the mutation in two different genes, the tetrad can
segregate these genes as the
A. non parental ditype
B. parental ditype
C. tetratype
D. all of above
MCQ 65: Crossing over refers to
A. change in chromosome
B. thickening of chromosome
C. exchange of segments between section of chromosome
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. D
35. A
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. C
50. D
51. B
52. B
53. D
54. A
55. D
56. D
57. C
58. D
59. C
60. C
61. C
62. A
63. D
64. D
65. C
Mendelian Concepts
MCQ 1: The ordered list of loci known for a particular genome is called
A. gene map
B. loci
C. alleles
D. chromosomes
MCQ 2: Genetic diversity indicates
A. large gene pool
B. small gene pool
C. moderate gene pool
D. no gene pool
MCQ 3: The gene which cannot be determined by observing the organism is
A. dominant
B. recessive
C. allele
D. phenotype
MCQ 4: Gene is the molecular unit of
A. heredity
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. genotype
MCQ 5: Genes evolve due to
A. natural selection
B. artificial selection
C. random selection
D. gene selection
MCQ 6: Organisms that have one copy of each gene on each chromosome are
A. diploid
B. haploid
C. unicellular
D. all of above
MCQ 7: The alternative forms of same gene is called
A. locus
B. gene
C. allele
D. phenotype
MCQ 8: Recessive genetic disorders include
A. Albinism
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Galactosemia
D. all of above
MCQ 9: Chromosomes that have different alleles of a given gene at locus is called
A. homozygous
B. heterozygous
C. X chromosomes
D. Y chromosomes
MCQ 10: If one allele is missing the organism is
A. heterozygous
B. homozygous
C. hemizygous
D. all of above
MCQ 11: An individual that is homozygous-dominant for a particular trait carries
A. 2 copies of alleles
B. 3 copies of allele
C. 4 copies of allele
D. 5 copies of allele
MCQ 12: Humans estimated haploid protein coding genes are in range
A. 30,000-40,000
B. 40,000-50,000
C. 20,000-25,000
D. 10,000-15,000
MCQ 13: For a single gene trait, a number of genetic disorders are caused when an
individual inherits
A. two dominant alleles
B. one dominant allele
C. one recessive allele
D. two recessive alleles
MCQ 14: The movement of genes from one species to another is
A. leakage
B. penetrance
C. expressivity
D. co-dominance
MCQ 15: The process of determining the locus for particular biological traits in-
cludes
A. replication
B. recombination
C. gene mapping
D. none of above
MCQ 16: Where the heterozygote is indistinguishable from one of the homozygotes
the allele involved is said to be
A. recessive
B. dominant
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 17: If the gene expresses itself then it's penetrance is
A. 50%
B. 100%
C. 150%
D. 200%
MCQ 18: When two or more clearly different phenotypes exist in the same popu-
lation of species then the species is called
A. polymorph
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. recombination
MCQ 19: When red homozygous flower is paired with white homozygous flower
then the resultant pink snapdragon is result of
A. partial dominance
B. complete dominance
C. co-dominance
D. all of above
MCQ 20: The set of all genes in any population is termed as
A. population pool
B. species pool
C. gene pool
D. none of above
MCQ 21: The inherited instructions an organism carries within its genome is it's
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. clone
D. recombination
MCQ 22: Mutations in the sequence of genes are known as
A. locus
B. population
C. alleles
D. gene sequence
MCQ 23: Phenotypic variation is a fundamental prerequisite for evolution by
A. artificial selection
B. natural selection
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 24: Composite of an organism's observable characters or traits is called
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. recombination
D. replication
MCQ 25: If a genetic shift occurs within a population the mutant allele becomes
A. wild type
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. all of above
MCQ 26: If both the alleles are same with respect to genes then they are called
A. heterozygous
B. unicellular
C. homozygous
D. multicellular
MCQ 27: The genotype-phenotype distinction was proposed by
A. Darwin
B. Mendelian
C. Wilhelm Johannson
D. none of above
MCQ 28: Most multicellular organisms are
A. haploid
B. diploid
C. single nucleus
D. none of above
MCQ 29: Region of DNA that encodes a functional RNA or protein product is called
A. clone
B. gene
C. phenotype
D. genotype
MCQ 30: Homozygous chromosomes include
A. diploid cells
B. polyploid cells
C. both A and B
D. haploid cells
MCQ 31: The phenomenon in which the effect of one allele in heterozygous geno-
type completely masks the effect of other is called
A. co-dominance
B. dominance
C. complete dominance
D. in complete dominance
MCQ 32: The specific location of gene and DNA sequence on a chromosome is
called
A. population
B. locus
C. alleles
D. arm
MCQ 33: Visible genetic traits include
A. hair color
B. eye color
C. number of limbs
D. all of above
MCQ 34: The transmission of genes to an organism's offspring is the basis of the
inheritance of
A. phenotypic traits
B. genotypic traits
C. physical traits
D. none of above
MCQ 35: If the genetic diversity is low the chance of extinction is
A. decreased
B. increased
C. remains same
D. becomes zero
MCQ 36: Incomplete dominance is also termed as
A. partial dominance
B. half dominance
C. co-dominance
D. none of above
Answers Key:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. B
36. A
Metabolism of Fatty Acids and Proteins
MCQ 1: As compared to saturated fats, unsaturated fats contain
A. more energy
B. less energy
C. equal energy
D. doesn't contain any energy
MCQ 2: Fatty acids which are not directly released in to intestinal capillaries are
A. long chain fatty acids
B. short chain fatty acids
C. medium chain fatty acids
D. all of above
MCQ 3: Carboxylic acid with a long aliphatic chain is termed as
A. protein
B. carbohydrate
C. fatty acid
D. vitamin
MCQ 4: Double bonds are formed when hydrogen atoms are
A. added
B. doesn't change
C. eliminated
D. none of above
MCQ 5: Naturally occurring fatty acids have number of carbon atoms in range
A. 10-15
B. 12-28
C. 30-40
D. 50-100
MCQ 6: Fatty acids are usually derived from
A. triglycerides
B. phospholipids
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 7: Saturated fat is a type of fat in which fatty acids have
A. single bonds
B. double bonds
C. triple bonds
D. coordinate covalent bonds
MCQ 8: Antioxidants can protect unsaturated fats from
A. lipid reduction
B. lipid oxidation
C. lipid per reduction
D. lipid peroxidation
MCQ 9: Triglycerides are coated with cholesterol and protein in to a compound
called
A. chylomicron
B. lacteal
C. lipoproteins
D. pyruvic acid
MCQ 10: Unsaturated fats have
A. low melting points
B. high melting points
C. high boiling points
D. none of above
MCQ 11: Oleic acid is an example of
A. saturated fat
B. unsaturated fat
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 12: Fatty acids which must be obtained from food are called
A. non essential fatty acids
B. saturated fatty acids
C. unsaturated fatty acids
D. essential fatty acids
MCQ 13: When released from adipocytes, fatty acids exist in the blood as
A. saturated fatty acids
B. unsaturated fatty acids
C. bound fatty acids
D. free fatty acids
MCQ 14: Natural sources of fatty acids are rich in
A. cis isomer
B. trans isomer
C. iso isomer
D. none of above
MCQ 15: If a fatty acid contains one double bond then it is
A. monounsaturated
B. monosaturated
C. diunsaturated
D. desaturated
MCQ 16: Most animal fats are
A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 17: If the hydrogen atoms are present on the same side of double bond then it
is called a
A. trans isomer
B. cis isomer
C. both A and B
D. iso isomer
MCQ 18: Within the cell, the chylomicron is released in to a lymphatic capillary
called
A. duct
B. lacteal
C. villi
D. bladder
Answers Key:
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. B
Non Enzymatic Protein Function
MCQ 1: A foreign macromolecule that binds selectively to an antibody is called
A. stem cell
B. antigen
C. antibody
D. lymph
MCQ 2: The most common model of enzymatic binding sites is
A. induced fit model
B. lock and key model
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 3: High affinity ligands, which are able to reside in binding site longer have
high
A. intermolecular force
B. kinetic energy
C. both A and B
D. pH
MCQ 4: Polymerization motor include
A. Actins
B. Microtubule
C. Dynamin
D. all of above
MCQ 5: The affinity of binding of protein and ligand is chemically
A. attractive force
B. repulsive force
C. hydrogen bonding
D. coordinate covalent bonding
MCQ 6: Most of the binding sites in proteins are
A. convex
B. flat
C. concave
D. none of above
MCQ 7: Cells which kills the cells that display foreign motifs on their surface are
A. plasma cells
B. red blood cells
C. antigens
D. cytotoxic T lymphocytes
MCQ 8: The total number of binding sites that are occupied by ligands per unit time
is called
A. collaboration of binding site
B. saturation of binding site
C. affinity of binding site
D. none of above
MCQ 9: The smaller incoming molecule that binds to protein is called
A. Ligand
B. binding site
C. macro molecule
D. micro molecule
MCQ 10: Antibodies are secreted by
A. stem cells
B. tissue cells
C. plasma cells
D. membranous cells
MCQ 11: In induced fit model the substrate interacts with the active site to change
it's
A. affinity
B. shape
C. size
D. nature
MCQ 12: A molecular motor responsible for muscle contraction, intracellular cargo
transport and produce cellular tension is named as
A. Myosin
B. kinesin
C. Dynein
D. Actin
MCQ 13: A single stranded DNA is converted into double stranded DNA by
A. RNA polymerases
B. DNA polymerases
C. nitrogenous bases
D. hydrogen bonding
MCQ 14: Soluble proteins that function as recognition elements that bind foreign
molecules and serve as markers signaling foreign invasion are called
A. antigens
B. antibodies
C. fighters
D. epitope
MCQ 15: The immune system comprises of
A. two parallel systems
B. three parallel systems
C. two anti parallel systems
D. three anti parallel systems
Answers Key:
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. A
Nucleic Acid Structure and Function
MCQ 1: The number of bases per turn in B-DNA is
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
MCQ 2: Oxygen of phosphates are
A. polar
B. non polar
C. negatively charged
D. both A and C
MCQ 3: 5'-ATGC-3' will be complementary to
A. 5'-GCAT-3'
B. 5'-TACG-3'
C. 3'-GCAT-5'
D. none of above
MCQ 4: Nucleic acids were discovered in
A. 1869
B. 1870
C. 1868
D. 1867
MCQ 5: A technique which measures genetic distance between two species is called
A. DNA hybridization
B. DNA reannealing
C. DNA denaturation
D. DNA sequencing
MCQ 6: Sugar phosphate backbone chain has the direction
A. 5' to 3'
B. 3' to 5'
C. 4' to 3'
D. 3' to 4'
MCQ 7: DNA with higher GC content are
A. easy to break
B. moderately strong
C. harder to break
D. unstable
MCQ 8: The two strands of DNA are held together by
A. Vander wall forces
B. hydrogen bonding
C. covalent bonding
D. ionic bonding
MCQ 9: The DNA can be denatured by
A. rising temperature
B. chemical treatment
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 10: The most common naturally occurring DNA is
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. C-DNA
D. E-DNA
MCQ 11: Cytocine and Uracil are commonly found in
A. DNA
B. protein
C. RNA
D. none of above
MCQ 12: In Watson and Crick's model of DNA the purine is opposite to
A. purine
B. pyrine
C. pyrol
D. pyrimidine
MCQ 13: According to Chargaff's rules
A. pyrimidines = pyrimidines
B. purines = purines
C. T = C
D. pyrimidine = purines
MCQ 14: If the sugar in nucleic acid is deoxyribose, then polymer is
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. NADP
D. NADPH
MCQ 15: The common purines are
A. adenine
B. guanine
C. both A and B
D. cytocine and uracil
MCQ 16: The most oxidized state of purine is
A. uric acid
B. uracil
C. thymine
D. adenine
MCQ 17: Nucleic acids were first discovered within nucleus of
A. prokaryotic cells
B. bacteria
C. eukaryotic cells
D. mitochondria
MCQ 18: The DNA molecule is stabilized by
A. large no. of H bonds
B. hydrophobic bonding b/w stacked bases
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 19: The persistence length of a section of DNA is dependent upon it's
A. hydrogen bonding
B. sequence
C. base pairing
D. all of above
MCQ 20: The phenomenon in which the H bonds pair the bases of nucleotides in
one chain to complementary bases in the other is called
A. pairing
B. sugar pairing
C. base pairing
D. phosphate pairing
MCQ 21: The width of minor groove is
A. 22Å
B. 20Å
C. 15Å
D. 12Å
MCQ 22: The common naturally occurring pyrimidines are
A. cytosine
B. uracil
C. thymine
D. all of above
MCQ 23: RNA molecules exist as
A. double stranded molecules
B. single stranded molecules
C. sheets
D. none of above
MCQ 24: The largest individual molecules known are
A. DNA
B. protein
C. vitamins
D. enzymes
MCQ 25: The degrees of freedom of DNA are
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
MCQ 26: The bases in sugar phosphate backbone are
A. hydrophilic
B. hydrophobic
C. have ester bond
D. none of above
MCQ 27: The keto tautomer is called
A. lactim
B. lactam
C. lactic
D. lacmic
MCQ 28: The two strands of DNA are
A. parallel to each other
B. perpendicular to each other
C. antiparallel to each other
D. at an acute angle with each other
MCQ 29: Pyrimidine and purine exist as
A. tautomeric pairs
B. allosteric pairs
C. chromosome pairs
D. none of above
MCQ 30: The important functional groups participating in H-bond formation are
the amino groups of
A. cytocine
B. adenine
C. guanine
D. all of above
MCQ 31: In B-DNA the wider groove is
A. major
B. minor
C. moderate
D. none of above
MCQ 32: The DNA nitrogenous base thymine forms two hydrogen bonds with
A. Guanine
B. Adenine
C. Cytocine
D. Thymine
MCQ 33: Loss of H-bonds between two complementary strands results in
A. strand binding
B. strand separation
C. strand destruction
D. none of above
MCQ 34: The main function of nucleic acid is to
A. encoding of genetic information
B. transmission of genetic information
C. expression of genetic information
D. all of above
MCQ 35: The two strands of DNA are held together by
A. interchain hydrogen bond
B. Vander wall interaction
C. ionic interaction
D. covalent interaction
MCQ 36: A nucleotide has component
A. pentose sugar
B. nitrogenous base
C. phosphate group
D. all of above
MCQ 37: DNA can transfer genetic information due to
A. parallel base pairing
B. hydrogen bonding
C. phosphate groups
D. complementary base pairing
MCQ 38: Guanine is paired with cytocine by
A. 3 hydrogen bonds
B. 4 hydrogen bonds
C. 2 hydrogen bonds
D. 5 hydrogen bonds
MCQ 39: Pyrimidine and purines are strong
A. reflectors
B. absorbers
C. refractors
D. none of above
MCQ 40: The substructure consisting of a nucleobase and sugar is termed as
A. nucleotide
B. nucleoside
C. DNA
D. RNA
MCQ 41: Nucleic acids are made up of monomers called
A. nucleotides
B. nucleosides
C. DNA
D. RNA
MCQ 42: In sugar phosphate backbone, the sugars are linked together by
A. disulfide bond
B. sulfite bond
C. ester bond
D. phosphodiester bond
Answers Key:
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. B
34. D
35. A
36. D
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. B
41. A
42. D
Oxidative Phosphorylation
MCQ 1: The movement across membrane depends upon
A. Diffusion
B. Electrostatic force
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 2: The reduced form od NADP+ is
A. NAD
B. NADPH
C. NADH
D. none of above
MCQ 3: Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in
A. mitochondria
B. nucleus
C. cell membrane
D. ribosomes
MCQ 4: Excessive rate of apoptosis causes
A. AIDS
B. fever
C. sneezing
D. atrophy
MCQ 5: In metabolism, NAD is involved in
A. redox reactions
B. elimination reaction
C. spontaneous reaction
D. all of above
MCQ 6: The production of ATP by chemiosmosis is done in
A. chloroplasts
B. mitochondria
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 7: Chemiosmotic hypothesis was proposed by
A. Peter D. Mitchell
B. Charles Darwin
C. Mendele
D. Alfred Russell
MCQ 8: The magnitude of proton motive force depends upon the
A. number of ribosomes in cell
B. permeability of membrane
C. both A and B
D. energy charge of cell
MCQ 9: In average human adult, the rate of apoptosis per day is
A. 100 billion cells
B. 50-70 billion cells
C. 30 billion cells
D. 10 billion cells
MCQ 10: The rate of electron transfer when the proton motive force is high is
A. slower
B. faster
C. moderate
D. zero
MCQ 11: In humans oxidative stress is involved in development of
A. cancer
B. parkinson's disease
C. heart failure
D. all of above
MCQ 12: Proteins that contain nucleic acid derivative of riboflavin are called
A. amino acids
B. flavoproteins
C. nucleic acid
D. none of above
MCQ 13: Hemiproteins that generate ATP via electron transport chain are called
A. flavoproteins
B. cytochrome
C. nucleic acids
D. carboxylic acid
MCQ 14: The enzyme that makes ATP by chemiosmosis is
A. ATP dehydrogenase
B. Gyraze
C. ATP synthase
D. dehydrogenase
MCQ 15: The reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is
A. NAD
B. NAD+
C. NADH
D. NADPH
MCQ 16: NADP is a cofactor used in
A. redox reactions
B. elimination reaction
C. anabolic reactions
D. catabolic reactions
MCQ 17: Cytochromes were described by
A. Macmunn
B. Darwin
C. Mendele
D. none of above
MCQ 18: The percentage of total ATP produced by oxidative phosphorylation is
A. 90%
B. 80%
C. 70%
D. 60%
MCQ 19: The molecules oxidized in electron transport chain are
A. NADH
B. FADH
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 20: The regulation of oxidative phosphorylation depends upon
A. Magnitude of proton motive force
B. Magnitude of electron motive force
C. Magnitude of ion motive force
D. none of above
MCQ 21: Programmed cell death is termed as
A. oxidative stress
B. apoptosis
C. cell cycle
D. cell division
MCQ 22: The electrons in electron transport chains reduces oxygen in to
A. carbondioxide
B. water
C. carbonmonoxide
D. ozone
MCQ 23: The measure of potential energy stored as combination of proton and volt-
age gradients across membrane is termed as
A. electron motive force
B. proton motive force
C. ion motive force
D. molecule motive force
MCQ 24: The movement of ions across selectively permeable membrane is called
A. electron flow
B. chemiosmosis
C. flow rate
D. none of above
MCQ 25: The process of flow of electrons generated by oxidation of NADH and
FADH2 is called
A. phosphorylation
B. electron transport chain
C. dehydrogenation
D. oxidative phosphorylation
MCQ 26: The final stage of aerobic respiration is
A. dehydrogenation
B. phosphorylation
C. oxidative phosphorylation
D. halogenation
Answers Key:
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. C
Plasma Membrane
MCQ 1: Tunnels which allow specific ions to pass through them are called
A. selectively permeable tunnels
B. permeable tunnels
C. both A and B
D. channel proteins
MCQ 2: The type of transport which always involves a protein is
A. passive transport
B. active transport
C. lateral diffusion
D. flip flop
MCQ 3: The first phospholipid was identified in
A. 1847
B. 1857
C. 1867
D. 1877
MCQ 4: Cell drinking occurs in
A. phagocytosis
B. pinocytosis
C. receptor mediated endocytosis
D. none of above
MCQ 5: The extracellular concentration of Na+ ions is
A. 10
B. 142
C. 110
D. 140
MCQ 6: Supramembrane structures include
A. caveola
B. postsynaptic density
C. podosome
D. all of above
MCQ 7: Osmotic pressure is a type of
A. force
B. friction
C. work
D. none of above
MCQ 8: During resting potential, the cell membrane is
A. positive
B. negative
C. neutral
D. none of above
MCQ 9: The type of diffusion in which solvent molecules diffuses in to solute mole-
cules through semipermeable membrane is called
A. osmosis
B. intracellular diffusion
C. lateral diffusion
D. flip flop
MCQ 10: Waxes are the compounds which are extremely
A. hydrophillic
B. hydrophobic
C. sticky
D. none of above
MCQ 11: The net charge given by K+ leak channel to inside of cell is
A. negative
B. positive
C. zero
D. none of above
MCQ 12: ATP hydrolysis is coupled in
A. primary active transport
B. secondary active transport
C. tertiary active transport
D. none of above
MCQ 13: Plasma membrane is
A. always permeable
B. non permeable
C. selectively permeable
D. none of above
MCQ 14: Potassium leak channels helps to maintain
A. passive transportation
B. active transportation
C. osmotic balance
D. all of above
MCQ 15: In order to carryout metabolic reactions membranes contain
A. enzymes
B. coenzymes
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 16: If 3 Na+ ions pumped out of cell and 2 K+ pumped in to the cell then
number of ATP molecules hydrolyzed are
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
MCQ 17: The number of hydrophobic tails, a phospholipid molecule contains is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
MCQ 18: Proteins that completely span the lipid bilayer are called
A. extrinsic proteins
B. intrinsic proteins
C. fibrous proteins
D. all of above
MCQ 19: A type of movement which does not requires energy is called
A. flippase
B. floppase
C. scramblase
D. none of above
MCQ 20: Due to their amphiphillic characteristics, phospholipids form
A. lipid layer
B. lipid bilayer
C. lipid trilayer
D. lipid tetralayer
MCQ 21: Semipermeable membrane allows
A. solvent to pass
B. solute to pass
C. nothing to pass
D. everything to pass
MCQ 22: Desmosomes is composed of
A. fibers
B. soft tissue
C. hard tissue
D. none of above
MCQ 23: If the concentration of solute is same inside as well as outside the cell
then it is known as
A. hypertonic solution
B. isotonic solution
C. hypotonic solution
D. concentrated solution
MCQ 24: When vesicles in cytoplasm combines with plasma membrane excreting
hormones and other materials out of cell then this process is called
A. exocytosis
B. endocytosis
C. excretion
D. engulfing
MCQ 25: A membrane which separates intracellular components to extracellular
environment is
A. plasma membrane
B. nuclear membrane
C. mitochondria
D. cytoplasm
MCQ 26: Junction that prevents two cell compartments from mixing is
A. gap junction
B. desmosomes
C. tight junction
D. cell junction
MCQ 27: Pore- like connections between adjacent cells is an example of
A. gap junction
B. desmosomes
C. tight junction
D. cell junction
MCQ 28: Movement of phospholipids from side to side is known as
A. intracellular diffusion
B. extracellular diffusion
C. flip flop
D. lateral diffusion
MCQ 29: Types of endocytosis include
A. phagocytosis
B. pinocytosis
C. receptor mediated endocytosis
D. all of above
MCQ 30: Fluid mosaic model was presented in
A. 1980
B. 1978
C. 1972
D. 1973
MCQ 31: The cell's potential is maintained by
A. mitochondria
B. nucleus
C. ribosomes
D. cell membrane
MCQ 32: Any favorable movement of solute across membrane is called
A. active transport
B. passive transport
C. solute transport
D. solvent transport
MCQ 33: Proteins that use energy to move the substances across membrane are
called
A. carrier proteins
B. extrinsic proteins
C. intrinsic proteins
D. fibrous proteins
MCQ 34: Channels that help ions to cross the membrane are called
A. protein channels
B. ion channels
C. molecule channels
D. membrane channels
MCQ 35: Junction which doesn't forms a seal is
A. gap junction
B. desmosomes
C. tight junction
D. cell junction
MCQ 36: If the temperature is increased then kinetic energy inside membrane
molecules will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remains same
D. becomes zero
MCQ 37: Membrane receptors transmit signals from extracellular space in to
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. ribosomes
MCQ 38: The number of carbon atoms in steroids are
A. 7
B. 10
C. 17
D. 15
MCQ 39: The process in which cells absorb molecules by engulfing them is called
A. passive osmosis
B. cell death
C. exocytosis
D. endocytosis
MCQ 40: Trans bilayer diffusion is also known as
A. intracellular diffusion
B. extracellular diffusion
C. flip flop
D. lateral diffusion
MCQ 41: The energy required for passive transport is
A. 5 Kcal
B. 10 Kcal
C. 0 Kcal
D. infinite
MCQ 42: A steroid which decreases membrane fluidity is
A. cholesterol
B. cholic acid
C. estradiol
D. progesterone
MCQ 43: In catalytic receptors, the activity initiator at the extracellular surface is
A. protein binding
B. ion binding
C. ligand binding
D. cell binding
MCQ 44: The receptor site of cell is
A. glycolipids
B. glycoproteins
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 45: The number of substances symports carry in the same direction are
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
MCQ 46: Gap junction allows the exchange of
A. solutions
B. solutes
C. solvent
D. all of above
MCQ 47: If the difference in tonicity across the membrane is greater then osmotic
pressure will be
A. less
B. greater
C. zero
D. infinite
Answers Key:
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. C
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. B
Principles of Biogenetics
MCQ 1: ΔG in case of spontaneous reaction is
A. negative
B. positive
C. infinite
D. zero
MCQ 2: Cytochrome c is a water soluble electron carrier located within the
A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. intermembrane space
D. intramembrane space
MCQ 3: FAD stands for
A. flavin adenine dinucleotide
B. flvo arsenide dinucleoid
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 4: A series of compounds that transfer electrons from an electron donor to an
electron acceptor which then transfers protons across a membrane is called
A. electron transport chain
B. proton transport chain
C. neutron transport chain
D. all of above
MCQ 5: The chemical potential that is minimized when a system reaches equi-
librium at constant pressure and temperature is called
A. activation energy
B. Gibb's free energy
C. entropy
D. enthalpy
MCQ 6: Melting of ice cube is an example of
A. endothermic reaction
B. exothermic reaction
C. chemical change
D. all of above
MCQ 7: The nucleophilic attack by water on a phosphate monoester produces
A. inorganic phosphate
B. organic phosphate
C. both A and B
D. phosphorus sulphide
MCQ 8: Phosphate diester is used in the backbone of
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. DNA
D. rRNA
MCQ 9: The quantitative study of energy transductions that occur in and between
living organisms is called
A. biogenetics
B. thermodynamics
C. biogenetical thermodynamics
D. all of above
MCQ 10: Hydrolysis of phosphate groups in ATP is an
A. exergonic process
B. endergonic process
C. endothermic process
D. both A and C
MCQ 11: When the value of K is greater than 1, then the reaction is
A. forward
B. backward
C. spontaneous
D. nonspontaneous
MCQ 12: ATP is hydrolyzed in to
A. ADP
B. inorganic phosphate
C. both A and B
D. organic phosphate
MCQ 13: The relation which relates enthalpy and entropy is
A. ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
B. ΔG - ΔH
C. ΔG° = -RTlnK
D. both A and C
MCQ 14: The value of equilibrium constant depends upon
A. temperature
B. ionic strength
C. both A and B
D. volume
MCQ 15: Phosphoryl groups are derivatives of
A. citric acid
B. phosphoric acid
C. hydrochloric acid
D. sulfuric acid
MCQ 16: Exothermic reactions have high
A. entropy
B. enthalpy
C. pH
D. activation energy
MCQ 17: Lipid soluble electron carrier is called
A. Ubiquinone
B. cytochrome c
C. Quinone
D. vitamins
MCQ 18: The reaction by which chemical energy that has been stored in the high en-
ergy phosphoanhydride bonds in ATP is released is called
A. ATP phosphorylation
B. ATP dehydrogenation
C. ATP hydrogenation
D. ATP hydrolysis
MCQ 19: A lipid soluble carrier that shuttles electrons between large macro-
molecular complexes embedded in the membrane is
A. Ubiquinone
B. cytochrome c
C. Quinone
D. vitamins
MCQ 20: The equilibrium constant is related to Gibb's free energy change for the
reaction as
A. ΔG° = -RTlnK°
B. K = ΔGlnRT
C. K = ΔG - ΔH
D. none of above
MCQ 21: During glycolysis, the phosphate groups used are
A. organic
B. inorganic
C. neutral
D. none of above
MCQ 22: Whenever the system's equilibrium is disturbed it will adjust itself in a
way that the effect of change will be
A. increased
B. decreased
C. remains same
D. nullified
MCQ 23: In case of nonspontaneous reaction the reaction favored is
A. forward
B. both forward and reverse
C. reverse
D. none of above
MCQ 24: Respiratory enzymes catalyze
A. hydrolysis
B. hydrogenases
C. redox reactions
D. polymerase reactions
MCQ 25: The reactions which can not occur spontaneously are
A. exothermic
B. endothermic
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 26: In oxidation half reaction the charge is
A. increased
B. remains same
C. decreased
D. none of above
MCQ 27: Le chatlier's principle is also termed as
A. Thermodynamics law
B. Equilibrium law
C. Biogenetics law
D. Heredity law
MCQ 28: Proteins that contain nucleic acid derivative of riboflavin are termed as
A. water soluble proteins
B. flavoproteins
C. water insoluble proteins
D. all of above
MCQ 29: Electron transfer flavoprotein function as a specific electron acceptor for
A. secondary dehydrogenases
B. tertiary dehydrogenases
C. primary dehydrogenases
D. tetra dehydrogenases
MCQ 30: Flavoproteins are involved in
A. bioluminescence
B. DNA repair
C. apoptosis
D. all of above
Answers Key:
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. D
Principles of Metabolic Regulation
MCQ 1: In liver, for conversion to glycogen extra G6P maybe converted to
A. G1P
B. G2P
C. G3P
D. G4P
MCQ 2: A control coefficient measures the
A. steady state change
B. pH change
C. temperature change
D. hormonal change
MCQ 3: Adipose tissues converts glucose in to
A. diglycerides
B. triglycerides
C. tetraglycerides
D. none of above
MCQ 4: In allosteric control the activator that activates glycogen phosphorylase is
A. AMP
B. glucose 6 phosphate
C. ATP
D. ADP
MCQ 5: The local response of enzyme or other chemical reaction to change in its
environment is measured by
A. steady state change
B. summation theorems
C. control equations
D. elasticity coefficients
MCQ 6: Allosteric control changes the
A. nature of enzyme
B. shape of enzyme
C. physical properties of enzyme
D. chemical properties of enzyme
MCQ 7: Insulin is released in to
A. liver
B. stomach
C. blood
D. kidneys
MCQ 8: Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by
A. phosphorylation
B. dephosphorylation
C. dehydrogenation
D. hydrogenation
MCQ 9: Different enzymes that catalyze the same reaction are called
A. isoenzymes
B. coenzymes
C. cofactors
D. all of above
MCQ 10: The metabolic pathways maintains
A. homeostasis
B. internal environment as changing in external environment
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 11: In last step of glycolysis pyruvate kinase enzyme produces
A. pyruvate
B. ATP
C. both A and B
D. ADP
MCQ 12: Glycogenesis responds to
A. blood control
B. temperature control
C. pH control
D. hormonal control
MCQ 13: A compound suppressed by glucose and insulin is
A. glucagon
B. ATP
C. ADP
D. triglyceride
MCQ 14: Inhibition or activation of an enzyme by a small regulatory molecule is
called
A. enzyme control
B. allosteric control
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 15: When blood sugar falls the glycolysis is halted in liver to allow
A. aerobic respiration
B. gluconeogenesis
C. anaerobic respiration
D. homeostasis
MCQ 16: Glucagon releases a certain amount of glucose from
A. stomach
B. blood
C. liver
D. pancreas
MCQ 17: Metabolic control analysis is a mathematical framework for describing
A. metabolic signaling
B. genetic pathways
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 18: The regulation enzymes in glycolysis include
A. hexokinase
B. phosphofructokinase
C. pyruvate kinase
D. all of above
MCQ 19: Dynamic steady state can be maintained through
A. feedback inhibition
B. isoenzymes
C. short effect/long effect
D. all of above
MCQ 20: The rate of breakdown of metabolites is termed as
A. metabolism
B. metabolic state
C. homeostasis
D. steady state
MCQ 21: Glucokinase allows glucose to be converted in to
A. glycogen
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
D. all of above
Answers Key:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. D
Protein Structure
MCQ 1: in 3° structure of proteins, the folding and shaping is done by
A. hydrophobic interactions
B. polar interactions
C. hydrogen bonding
D. none of above
MCQ 2: Proteins that do not function but recover their activity upon folding are
A. denatured
B. folded
C. synthesized
D. hydrolyzed
MCQ 3: The alpha-helix structure resembles
A. sheet
B. coiled spring
C. linear chain
D. none of above
MCQ 4: The chiral centers of polypeptide chains can undergo
A. formylation
B. amidation
C. racemization
D. none of above
MCQ 5: If the entropy is increased then overall reaction is
A. non spontaneous
B. spontaneous
C. no reaction
D. none of above
MCQ 6: Altering a single amino acid in polypeptide chain results in
A. gene mutation
B. genetic code
C. polymerization
D. none of above
MCQ 7: 2° structure of proteins is of
A. only one type
B. three types
C. two types
D. four types
MCQ 8: In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA is moved towards the
A. cathode
B. anode
C. DNA doesn't move
D. none of above
MCQ 9: In SDS electrophoresis, the proteins are separated on the basis of
A. charge
B. mass
C. both A and B
D. structure
MCQ 10: The interactions which holds and stabilizes the sub units in 4° structure of
proteins are
A. hydrophilic interactions
B. hydrogen bonding
C. hydrophobic interactions
D. none of above
MCQ 11: Amino acids interact with each other to produce a well-defined 3D struc-
ture known as
A. native state
B. denaturing
C. 1° structure of proteins
D. synthesis of proteins
MCQ 12: If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility then
the type of electrophoresis is
A. SDS page
B. free flow electrophoresis
C. electro focusing
D. affinity electrophoresis
MCQ 13: The coiling and folding of polypeptide chain gives us
A. 1° structure
B. 2° structure
C. 3° structure
D. 4° structure
MCQ 14: A process by which a protein structure assumes it's functional shape or
conformation is
A. denaturing
B. folding
C. synthesis
D. hydrolysis
MCQ 15: Interactions between multiple polypeptide chains forms
A. 1° structure
B. 2° structure
C. 3° structure
D. 4° structure
MCQ 16: At certain pH environments the isoelectric point affects the
A. solubility of molecule
B. solubility of solvent
C. temperature
D. density of molecule
MCQ 17: A technique which separates charged particles using electric field is
A. Hydrolysis
B. electrophoresis
C. protein synthesis
D. protein denaturing
MCQ 18: The linear sequence of amino acids forms
A. 1° structure
B. 2° structure
C. 3° structure
D. 4° structure
MCQ 19: When the hydrophobic side chain is placed in aqueous solution then the
change in entropy is
A. positive
B. no change
C. both A and B
D. negative
MCQ 20: The process of folding depends upon the
A. solvent
B. the concentration of salts
C. pH
D. all of above
MCQ 21: In beta pleated sheet, the hydrogen bonding is between
A. sulfur linkage
B. amide group
C. polypeptide units of folded sheet
D. inside a single sheet
MCQ 22: The layer that surrounds the solute when it is dissolved in solvent is
called
A. solvent layer
B. solvation layer
C. solute layer
D. fatty layer
MCQ 23: In electrophoresis the protein will move until
A. it's pH is greater than PI
B. it's pH is smaller than PI
C. It's pH is equal to PI
D. PI is greater than pH
MCQ 24: pH at which the amino acids does not migrate in an electric field in
A. isoelectric
B. electric point
C. field point
D. all of above
MCQ 25: The type of bonding in disulphide bridge is
A. covalent bonding between R groups of Cystine amino acids
B. ionic bonding
C. hydrogen bonding
D. polar interactions
MCQ 26: The benefit of hydrophobic interaction includes
A. protein aggregation
B. decreases the surface area to allow interaction with water
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 27: In the peptide chain the alpha helix is secured by
A. sulfur linkage
B. amide group
C. carboxyl group
D. hydrogen bonding
Answers Key:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. C
27. D
Recombinant DNA and Biotechnology
MCQ 1: Stem cells are capable of
A. self renewal
B. potency
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 2: A technique that measures the degree of genetic similarity between pools of
DNA sequences is called
A. Annealing
B. denaturation
C. hybridization
D. none of above
MCQ 3: λ phage vector can carry up to
A. 20 kb fragments
B. 30 kb fragments
C. 40 kb fragments
D. 50 kb fragments
MCQ 4: In gel electrophoresis the fragments are separated on basis of
A. size
B. charge
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 5: For cloning to occur, the bacteria's plasmid's must be cut by
A. restriction enzymes
B. polymerase enzyme
C. helicase enzyme
D. gyrase enzyme
MCQ 6: Harms DNA technology can create include
A. experimental abuse on human subjects
B. creation of pathogens
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 7: The process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within DNA is
A. DNA replication
B. denaturation
C. blotting
D. DNA sequencing
MCQ 8: Genomic library is normally made by
A. α phage vectors
B. λ phage vectors
C. β phage vectors
D. γ phage vectors
MCQ 9: In initiation the DNA is made
A. double stranded
B. spiral shaped
C. single stranded
D. like a sheet
MCQ 10: Library screening identify colonies which have specific
A. gene
B. bacteria
C. DNA
D. RNA
MCQ 11: The enzyme used in formation of cDNA from mRNA is
A. helicase
B. polymerase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. gyrase
MCQ 12: The location of expression can be found out by using
A. labelled antibodies
B. protein markers
C. gel markers
D. dyes
MCQ 13: Person's with genetic disorders are treated with
A. radiotherapy
B. human gene therapy
C. lasers
D. surgery
MCQ 14: cDNA is produced from
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. protein chain
D. DNA
MCQ 15: Polyacrylamide gel is usually used for
A. proteins
B. DNA
C. both A and B
D. Vitamins
MCQ 16: DNA extracted from an organism is cut in to gene size pieces with
A. polymerase enzymes
B. helicase enzyme
C. gyrase enzyme
D. restriction enzyme
MCQ 17: Agarose is composed of long unbranched chains of uncharged
A. proteins
B. vitamins
C. carbohydrates
D. RNA
MCQ 18: Long probes are usually made by
A. gene expression
B. cloning
C. hybridization
D. all of above
MCQ 19: The mRNA is quantified by using
A. northern blotting
B. RT-qPCR
C. both A and B
D. replication
MCQ 20: The differentiation potential of the stem cells specifies
A. stochastic differentiation
B. asymmetric replication
C. potency
D. self renewal
MCQ 21: The tail which distinguishes mRNA from tRNA and rRNA is
A. poly C-tail
B. poly B-tail
C. poly Z-tail
D. poly A-tail
MCQ 22: To express eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes the library used is
A. cDNA library
B. bDNA library
C. aDNA library
D. zDNA library
MCQ 23: The types of DNA libraries are
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 2
MCQ 24: In eukaryotic cells mature mRNA is already spliced, hence the cDNA pro-
duced lacks
A. introns
B. exons
C. ribosomes
D. uracil
MCQ 25: The tools that group and interpret genes that are similar to certain pro-
teins or related groups are called
A. BLASTN
B. cloning
C. hybridization
D. gene expression
MCQ 26: DNA sequencing is used in
A. forensic studies
B. biotechnology
C. diagnostics
D. all of above
MCQ 27: In genome southern blotting can be used to identify
A. sequences
B. number of sequences
C. DNA fragments
D. RNA sequence
MCQ 28: To remove negatively charged molecules through matrix of agarose, nu-
cleic acid molecules are separated by applying
A. electric current
B. electric field
C. magnetic field
D. all of above
MCQ 29: In agarose the proteins are separated by
A. charge
B. mass
C. pH
D. temperature
MCQ 30: In a developing embryo, the stem cells can differentiate into
A. ectoderm
B. endoderm
C. mesoderm
D. all of above
MCQ 31: HaeIII and AluI cut straight across the double helix producing
A. sticky ends
B. blunt ends
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 32: For cloning, DNA samples are taken from
A. same individual
B. different individual
C. different species
D. none of above
MCQ 33: Ethics of DNA technology includes
A. qualification to receive treatment
B. use of genetic information
C. both A and B
D. picking of specific traits
MCQ 34: Forensic evidence includes
A. blood type and tissue evidence
B. use of fingerprints
C. both A and B
D. use of stem cells
MCQ 35: Method used for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples is
known as
A. Northern blotting
B. Electrophoresis
C. southern blotting
D. none of above
MCQ 36: For DNA agarose gel have lower
A. resolving power
B. separation range
C. pH
D. temperature
MCQ 37: Gene expression is a method in which genotype gives rise to
A. phenotype
B. another genotype
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 38: Medical applications of DNA technology includes
A. sickle cell disease
B. allow early treatments in next generation
C. HIV DNA in blood or tissue
D. all of above
MCQ 39: Small circles of DNA present in bacterial cells are called
A. enzymes
B. ribosomes
C. plasmids
D. none of above
MCQ 40: DNA library which lack DNA sequences corresponding to genomic se-
quence are
A. cDNA library
B. genomic DNA library
C. aDNA library
D. bDNA library
MCQ 41: Electromotive force that is used to move the molecules through the gel
matrix refers to
A. southern blotting
B. northern blotting
C. cloning
D. electrophoresis
MCQ 42: When electric current is applied through the gel the large molecules move
A. faster
B. slowly
C. same speed
D. none of above
MCQ 43: Zinc-finger nucleases is
A. natural restriction enzyme
B. type of polymerase enzyme
C. artificial restriction enzyme
D. type of helicase enzyme
MCQ 44: PCR is generally a
A. 4 step reaction
B. 2 step reaction
C. 3 step reaction
D. 5 step reaction
MCQ 45: Environmental cleanup uses
A. genetically engineered microbes
B. bacteria
C. viruses
D. DNA
MCQ 46: Analyzing gene expression is useful to detect
A. viral infections in cells
B. susceptibility to cancer
C. resistance to penicillin
D. all of above
MCQ 47: The first DNA sequences were obtained in early
A. 1930s
B. 1920s
C. 1970s
D. 1980s
MCQ 48: The process in which the bacterial cell wall is disrupted by using small
electric pulses is
A. electroporation
B. electric shock
C. electric fragmentation
D. electrolysis
MCQ 49: Sticky ends are overhanging pieces of single stranded
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. proteins
D. all of above
MCQ 50: Restriction enzymes are also called
A. restriction sites
B. restriction endonucleases
C. restriction polymerases
D. endonucleases
MCQ 51: In order to accept the foreign gene the cut plasmids and foreign genes
must be
A. electrically shocked
B. heat shocked
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 52: The process in which one stem cell develops in to two differentiated
daughter cells , another stem cell undergoes mitosis and produces two identical
stem cells is called
A. stochastic differentiation
B. asymmetric replication
C. potency
D. self renewal
MCQ 53: A collection of living bacteria colonies that have been transformed with
different pieces of DNA from the organism that is a source of gene of interest is
A. gene library
B. gene cloning
C. gene regulation
D. gene expression
MCQ 54: In the buffer nucleic acids are often denatured by using
A. urea
B. ammonia
C. phosphorus
D. calcium
MCQ 55: When the bacteria replicate the recombinant DNA, the number of gene
copies
A. decreases
B. remains same
C. increases
D. becomes zero
MCQ 56: Species the are positively charged will migrate towards
A. anode
B. cathode
C. straight
D. none of above
MCQ 57: A piece of DNA or RNA used to detect specific nucleic acid sequences by
hybridization is called
A. probe
B. fragment
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 58: The types of stem cells in mammals are
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
MCQ 59: The transformation efficiency of λ phage vector over plasmid vector is
A. 100 times
B. 1000 times
C. 500 times
D. 700 times
MCQ 60: The number of petri dishes require to construct a human genomic library
using E coli is
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 700
D. 500
MCQ 61: Working probes must be
A. single stranded
B. double stranded
C. sticky
D. destabilized
MCQ 62: Stem cells are found in
A. unicellular organisms
B. multicellular organisms
C. non living things
D. viruses
MCQ 63: The small piece of DNA can be amplified by
A. PCR
B. denaturation
C. hybridization
D. all of above
Answers Key:
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. D
31. B
32. B
33. C
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. A
38. D
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. A
53. A
54. A
55. C
56. B
57. A
58. A
59. B
60. C
61. A
62. B
63. A
Transcription
MCQ 1: The human tintin gene has the largest number of
A. sticky ends
B. axons
C. exons
D. mRNA
MCQ 2: The types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells are
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
MCQ 3: Each type of tRNA molecule can be attached to
A. only one type of amino acid
B. two types of amino acid
C. three types of amino acids
D. four types of amino acids
MCQ 4: The length of transfer RNA is typically
A. 50 to 60 nucleotides
B. 76 to 90 nucleotides
C. 100 to 150 nucleotides
D. 150 to 200 nucleotides
MCQ 5: After synthesis the eukaryotic mRNA undergo extensive modifications in-
cluding
A. capping
B. polyadenylation
C. splicing
D. all of above
MCQ 6: One end of tRNA matches the genetic code in three nucleotide sequence
called
A. genetic code
B. codon
C. anticodon
D. none of above
MCQ 7: The longest primary transcript is produced by
A. tintin gene
B. dystrophin gene
C. centromere protein A
D. neuromedin u
MCQ 8: RNA polymerase creates a transcription bubble which separates two
strands of
A. DNA helix
B. RNA helix
C. mRNA
D. tRNA
MCQ 9: A DNA sequence is read by RNA polymerase which produces comple-
mentary antiparallel RNA strand called
A. tertiary transcript
B. secondary transcript
C. hexa transcript
D. primary transcript
MCQ 10: The sequences remaining after splicing are
A. axons
B. exons
C. axioms
D. sticky ends
MCQ 11: The stretch of DNA transcribed in to an RNA molecule is called
A. transcription
B. unit cell
C. translation unit
D. transcription unit
MCQ 12: In prokaryotes the small 30S ribosomal subunit contains the
A. 16S ribosomal RNA
B. 20S ribosomal RNA
C. 24S ribosomal RNA
D. 28S ribosomal RNA
MCQ 13: In order to initiate transcription in eukaryotes
A. a core promoter sequence must be present
B. RNA strand must be present
C. RNA polymerase must be present
D. none of above
MCQ 14: The RNA component of ribosome is called
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. both A and B
D. rRNA
MCQ 15: RNA molecules that act as enzymes are called
A. splice
B. RNA polymerase
C. proteins
D. ribozymes
MCQ 16: In transcription, the particular segment of DNA is copied to RNA by the
enzyme
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. gyrase
D. helicase
MCQ 17: The most characterized type of core promoter in eukaryotes is
A. unit box
B. RNA box
C. TATA box
D. DNA box
MCQ 18: The first ribozyme was discovered in early
A. 1950s
B. 1920s
C. 1980s
D. 1970s
MCQ 19: Ribozymes are also termed as
A. catalytic RNA
B. RNAzyme
C. both A and B
D. none of above
MCQ 20: RNA polymerase II makes
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. none of above
MCQ 21: The types of rRNA the ribosomes contain are
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. one
MCQ 22: Modifications of the 5' ends of eukaryotic mRNA is called
A. capping
B. polyadenylation
C. splicing
D. none of above
MCQ 23: The location of splice sites in pre-mRNA can be determined by comparing
the sequence of genomic DNA with
A. A DNA
B. B DNA
C. cDNA
D. zDNA
MCQ 24: The process by which introns are removed is referred to as
A. splicing
B. capping
C. polyadenylation
D. replication
MCQ 25: The ribosome contains
A. 50% rRNA
B. 60% rRNA
C. 70%rRNA
D. 80% rRNA
Answers Key:
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. A
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